Faraday's law -- How is the RHS required for all surfaces?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion clarifies that the right-hand side of Faraday's law is independent of the surface as long as the boundary curve remains the same, a result derived from Stokes' Theorem. It explains that since the divergence of the magnetic field B is zero, B can be expressed as the curl of a vector potential A. Stokes' Theorem establishes the relationship between the surface integral of B and the line integral of A along the boundary curve. This means that the integral remains constant for all surfaces sharing the same boundary. The conversation emphasizes the mathematical foundation behind these electromagnetic principles.
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Homework Statement
My question is how do we know that faraday's law right side is required for all surfaces.
Relevant Equations
∫_c Edl =-d/dt ∫_s Bda
c Edl =-d/dt∫sBda
 
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do you mean why the right side is independent of the surface s as long as we keep the curve c , the boundary of the surface the same? This is a consequence of Stoke's Theorem (or curl theorem).

Since ##\nabla\cdot \vec{B}=0## (Gauss's law for magnetism) we can set ##\vec{B}=\nabla\times\vec{A}##. Stokes theorem tell us that $$\iint_S \vec{B}\cdot d\vec{S}=\iint _S(\nabla\times \vec{A})\cdot d\vec{S}=\oint_C\vec{A}\cdot d\vec{l}$$ so the surface integral of B over S will equal the line integral of A over the curve C, thus it remains constant for all surfaces S with the same boundary C.
 
Yes this is what I meat, thanks for answer.
 
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