Find ψ(x, t) and P(En) at t > 0 infinite well

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the wave function ψ(x, t) and the coefficients P(En) for a particle in an infinite potential well, specifically with walls at x=0 and x=a. The original poster begins with an initial state function and seeks to determine its evolution over time.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to find the coefficients c_n by integrating the product of the initial wave function and the stationary states. Some participants question the validity of the integration steps, particularly when n=1, suggesting that the integration may lead to undefined coefficients.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the mathematical details of the integration process and exploring the implications of the results. There is a recognition of potential complications arising from specific cases, such as when n=1, and suggestions to verify the integration using computational tools. The discussion is ongoing, with no explicit consensus reached yet.

Contextual Notes

There are concerns about normalization constants and the behavior of coefficients at specific values of n, particularly n=1, which may lead to undefined results. The original poster has also expressed uncertainty about the complexity of the resulting expressions.

rkdaniels
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Homework Statement
I am attempting to find a solution to the following problem
Relevant Equations
See below
I am currently stuck trying to work this out. I have an infinite potential with walls at x=0 and x=a, with the initial state:

$$
\psi(x,0) = A_2(exp(i\pi(x-a)/a)-1)
$$

I am trying to find psi(x,t). I know that

$$
A_2(exp(i\pi(x-a)/a)-1) = A_2(-exp(i\pi/a)-1)
$$

And this enables me to find the normalization constant:

$$
A_2 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}
$$

I also know that I can expand psi(x,0) as:

$$
\psi=\sum c_n\phi_n
$$

where

$$c_n = \langle\phi_n|\psi\rangle$$

and

$$\phi_n = \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}\sin\left( \frac{n\pi x}{a} \right)$$

I get stuck trying to find the coefficients here. When I try to integrate, I end up with something quite horrific and I'm sure it should be relatively simple.
 
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Can you show your work where you are struck exactly?
 
Sure, so ignoring the normalization constants for now, I think I am supposed to do the following in order to find the coefficients:

$$
\int_0^a\sin\frac{n\pi x}{a}\left( e^{\frac{i\pi x}{a}}+1 \right)dx
$$

I can express the exponential as sines and cosines and I have to integrate:

$$
\int_0^a\sin\left( \frac{n\pi x}{a}\right) \left(i \sin\left( \frac{\pi x}{a}\right) + \cos\left( \frac{\pi x}{a}\right) +1\right)dx
$$

I can expand this out to give:

$$
\int_0^a\sin\left( \frac{n\pi x}{a}\right) i \sin\left( \frac{\pi x}{a} \right) + \sin\left( \frac{n\pi x}{a}\right) \cos\left( \frac{\pi x}{a}\right) + \sin\left( \frac{n\pi x}{a}\right) dx
$$

And using two identities:

$$
\int_0^a
\frac{i}{2}\cos\left( \frac{(n-1)\pi x}{a}\right) + \frac{i}{2} \cos\left( \frac{(n+1)\pi x}{a} \right)
+ \frac{1}{2}\sin\left( \frac{(n+1)\pi x}{a}\right) + \frac{1}{2}\sin\left( \frac{(n-1)\pi x}{a}\right)
+ \sin\left( \frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)
dx
$$

When I integrate, the imaginary parts will turn to sines and evaluate to zero for x = 0 and x = a, leaving:

$$
\int_0^a
\frac{1}{2}\sin\left( \frac{(n+1)\pi x}{a}\right) + \frac{1}{2}\sin\left( \frac{(n-1)\pi x}{a}\right)
+ \sin\left( \frac{n\pi x}{a}\right)
dx
$$

Is this right?

Performing the integrating gives:

$$
\frac{a}{2\pi(n+1)}(\cos(n\pi+\pi)-1) + \frac{a}{2\pi(n-1)}(\cos(n\pi-\pi)-1) + \frac{a}{n\pi}(\cos(n\pi)-1)
$$

And I get a $c_n$ of:

$$
c_n = \frac{a-4an^2}{\pi n(n+1)(n-1)}\left( (-1)^n + 1 \right)
$$

And so,

$$
\psi(x,t) = \sum \frac{a-4an^2}{\pi n(n+1)(n-1)}\left( (-1)^n + 1 \right) \phi_n
$$

But this just seems overly complicated...
 
Last edited:
So,why do you think it horrific? Doing integration we get for n=1,c=0 and the non-zero contribution from other terms. You found normalization. And now:
$$\psi(x,t)= \psi(x,0) e^{-iE_{n}t/h} $$
Where ##\psi(x,0) ## is expanded using the stationary states.
 
But when n is 1 c is undefined. Does this matter?
 
rkdaniels said:
But when n is 1 c is undefined. Does this matter?
Substitute n=1 in the very first integral. You will get value of ##c_{1}## from there. As for equation,if you have done write integration(verify using softwares like Wolfram as I have not done your integrals but I think that they should be of these forms due to Sin terms) then,I don't see that equation is complicated.
 
Right but I have a formula for c and when n is 1, c is undefined, so perhaps my formula is wrong?
 
rkdaniels said:
Right but I have a formula for c and when n is 1, c is undefined, so perhaps my formula is wrong?
In that case take c which is defined. It is usual thing in QM
 
rkdaniels said:
Right but I have a formula for c and when n is 1, c is undefined, so perhaps my formula is wrong?
Your formula isn't valid for ##n=1## because when you integrated, you implicitly assumed ##n \ne 1## in evaluating the terms involving ##n-1##. For example,
$$\int_0^a \cos\left[\frac{(n-1)\pi x}a\right]\,dx = \int_0^a \cos 0\,dx = a$$ but you said it would be 0 because integrating would turn the cosine into a sine. That only happens when ##n \ne 1##.

So to find ##c_1##, set ##n=1##, simplify the integrand, and then integrate.
 

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