Find the general solution of a coupled differential equation:

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving a system of coupled differential equations derived from the Lorentz force law, specifically for a charged particle in a uniform electric field and a magnetic field. The equations are: \(\ddot{y} = \omega \dot{z}\) and \(\ddot{z} = \omega\left(\frac{\mathbf{E}}{\mathbf{B}} - \dot{y}\right)\), where \(\omega = \frac{\mathbf{QB}}{m}\). Participants suggest differentiating the equations and using techniques such as the Laplace transform and characteristic equations to find the general solution, which involves sinusoidal functions. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding linear differential equations with constant coefficients for effective problem-solving.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of coupled differential equations
  • Familiarity with the Lorentz force law
  • Knowledge of Laplace transforms
  • Concept of linear differential equations with constant coefficients
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of Laplace transforms in solving ordinary differential equations
  • Learn about the characteristic equation method for solving linear differential equations
  • Explore sinusoidal solutions in the context of coupled differential equations
  • Review the physical implications of the Lorentz force in charged particle dynamics
USEFUL FOR

Students and professionals in physics and engineering, particularly those dealing with electromagnetism and differential equations, will benefit from this discussion. It is especially relevant for those seeking to understand the dynamics of charged particles in electromagnetic fields.

vorcil
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Homework Statement



I want to find the general solution of these two equations,

\ddot{y}=\omega\dot{z}

\ddot{z}=\omega\left(\frac{\mathbf{E}}{\mathbf{B}} - \dot{y}\right)

Homework Equations


These two equations are the result of quantitatively solving to find the trajectory of a charged particle in a uniform electric field, perpendicular to a magnetic one,

Suppose that the B field points in the x direction, and the E field in the z direction, and the particle is released from rest,

the lorentz force law,
\mathbf{F}_{mag} = Q(\mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B})

The Attempt at a Solution



(i'm just going to show you how I got to the coupled differential equations

there is no force in the x direction due to the magnetic field being in that direction,

the position of the particle at t can be described by the vector, (0, y(t), z(t))

so \mathbf{v}=(0,\dot{y},\dot{z})
(the dots are the derivatives with respect to time)
calculating the cross product from the Lorentz force law,

\mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B} = \left| \begin{array}{ccc} \mathbf{\hat{x}} & \mathbf{\hat{y}} & \mathbf{\hat{z}} \\ 0 & \dot{y}& \dot{z} \\ \mathbf{B}& 0& 0 \\ \end{array} \right| =B \dot{z}\mathbf{\hat{y}} - B\dot{y}\mathbf{\hat{z}}

and applying Newtons second law, F=ma=QE=Q(v\timesB)=Q(E+(v\timesB))
\mathbf{F} = Q(\mathbf{E}+(\mathbf{v}\times\mathbf{B})) = Q(E\mathbf{\hat{z}} + B \dot{z}\mathbf{\hat{y}} - B\dot{y}\mathbf{\hat{z}} = m\mathbf{a} = m(\ddot{y}\mathbf{\hat{y}}+\ddot{z}\mathbf{\hat{z}}

separating the \hat{y} & \hat{z} components

\mathbf{QB}\dot{z} = m\ddot{y} & \mathbf{QE - QB}\dot{y} = m\ddot{z}

substituting in the cyclotron frequency formula, \omega = \frac{\mathbf{QB}}{m}

I get the two coupled differential equations that I showed earlier,1: \ddot{y}=\omega\dot{z}

2: \ddot{z}=\omega\left(\frac{\mathbf{E}}{\mathbf{B}} - \dot{y}\right)

I want to figure out the general solution, but I can never get it,
I'm supposed to Differentiate the first function and then use the second to eliminate \ddot{z}

-

well if I differentiate the first equation,

I get a triple dot y, \dot{\ddot{y}} = w\ddot{z}
Is that how I differentiate the first equation?
 
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vorcil said:


well if I differentiate the first equation,

I get a triple dot y, \dot{\ddot{y}} = w\ddot{z}
Is that how I differentiate the first equation?


Yes. And you substitute the value of \ddot{z} from second equation there.
 
so,

\dot{\ddot{y}} = \omega \omega(\frac{\mathbf{E}}{\mathbf{B}}-\dot{y})=\omega^2 (\frac{\mathbf{E}}{\mathbf{B}}-\dot{y})

\omega^2 = (\frac{QB}{m})^2

\mathbf{QE - QB}\dot{y} = mw(\frac{\mathbf{E}}{\mathbf{B}}-\dot{y}) = QB*(\frac{\mathbf{E}}{\mathbf{B}}-\dot{y}

I don't understand what to do from here
 
Differentiate 2nd equation. Plug in y^{..} from first equation. It looks like a sinusoidal equation, with z^{.} as your variable. Find z^{.} from here, and z. Plug it back in the equations and similarly find y.

The approach you are using, certainly works. Its just slightly messier.
 
Sourabh N said:
Differentiate 2nd equation. Plug in y^{..} from first equation. It looks like a sinusoidal equation, with z^{.} as your variable. Find z^{.} from here, and z. Plug it back in the equations and similarly find y.

The approach you are using, certainly works. Its just slightly messier.

ok if equation2= \ddot{z} = \omega (\frac{E}{B} - \dot{y})
then expanding

\ddot{z} = \omega (\frac{E}{B}) - \omega(\dot{y})

and differentiating

\dot{\ddot{z}} =\frac{E}{B} - \omega(\ddot{y})

then plugging in \ddot{y} from the first equation

\dot{\ddot{z}} = \frac{E}{B} - \omega(\omega\dot{z}) = \frac{E}{B}-\omega^2\dot{z}

I don't see how this looks like a sinusoidal equation?

so to get rid of those dots, I integrate?
 
Well, you can't just integrate. Do you know anything at all about solving "linear differential equations with constant coefficients"?
 
HallsofIvy said:
Well, you can't just integrate. Do you know anything at all about solving "linear differential equations with constant coefficients"?

Well I know how to integrate, and I've dealed with hard differential/coupled equations in physics before, but haven't started proper, differential equations in mathematics yet, I don't think?
is it just the same as integrating normal linear equations?
 
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vorcil said:
ok if equation2= \ddot{z} = \omega (\frac{E}{B} - \dot{y}) <br /> <br /> \dot{\ddot{z}} = \frac{E}{B} - \omega(\omega\dot{z}) = \frac{E}{B}-\omega^2\dot{z}<br /> <br /> I don&#039;t see how this looks like a sinusoidal equation?<br /> <br /> so to get rid of those dots, I integrate?
<br /> <br /> So it&#039;s essentially an ODE with constant coeff<br /> y&amp;#039;&amp;#039;&amp;#039;+\omega ^2y&amp;#039;=K<br /> Perhaps the easiest way to solve it is using LapLace transform. To make life further easier, assuming you have the system completely at rest for t=0, i.e. y(0)=y&#039;(0)=y&#039;&#039;(0). Take LT of both sides and rearrange one would get:<br /> Y(s)=\frac{K}{s^2(s^2+\omega^2)}=\frac{K}{\omega^2}(\frac{1}{s^2}-\frac{1}{s^2+\omega^2})<br /> <br /> So the solution is a ramp minus a sinusoid.
 
I really dislike the use of the Laplace transform for problems like this!

If you were to try a solution of the form y= e^{rx}, then you would have y&#039;= re^{rx}, y"=r^2e^{rx}, y&#039;&#039;&#039;= r^3e^{rx} and the "associated homogeneous equation" (with the "K" dropped) becomes r^3e^{rx}+ \omega^2 r e^{rx}= (r^3+ \omega r)e^{rx}= r(r^2+ \omega)e^{rx}= 0. Since e^{rx} can't be 0, we must have r(r^2+ \omega)= 0 which gives r= 0 and r= \pm i\sqrt{\omega}. Of course, e^{ix}= cos(x)+ i sin(x) so we can write e^{it\sqrt{\omega}} and it\sqrt{\omega}} in terms of cos(t\sqrt{\omega}) and sin(t\sqrt{\omega}). Of course, e^{0t}= 1: the general solution to the associated homogeneous equation is
C+ Dcos(t\sqrt{\omega})+ Esin(t\sqrt{\omega}).

To find the solution to the entire equation, try a constant solution, y= A, and add to that previous solution.
 
  • #10
What should I do here Ivy? I think I'll just go down to the physics department on tuesday and ask one of the tutors to help me, I don't know how they expect me to solve this, sad thing is, I think everyone else in my class can do this really quick, but I can't, bugger it.
 
  • #11
vorcil said:
What should I do here Ivy? I think I'll just go down to the physics department on tuesday and ask one of the tutors to help me, I don't know how they expect me to solve this, sad thing is, I think everyone else in my class can do this really quick, but I can't, bugger it.

Ivy's way is more "mathematician". The main idea is assuming the solution in form of complex exponential. Since God makes (e^{st})&#039;=se^{st}, the DE will be converted to a algebra equations. I think this hinted Oliver Heaviside to invent using LT to solve this kind of DE, by letting s=a+jb.

As engineer, we were trained to use LT for linear ODE with constant coeffs which is the guts of LTI systems. We did learn Ivy's way before LT was taught. So I think you should know both.
 
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