Find the lim as x approaches infinity

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limit of the function \(\frac{\sin x}{x - \pi}\) as \(x\) approaches infinity. This falls under the subject area of limits and calculus, specifically involving L'Hôpital's Rule and the Squeeze Theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the applicability of L'Hôpital's Rule, questioning whether the form is indeterminate. There are considerations about the behavior of \(\sin x\) as \(x\) approaches infinity and the implications of the denominator approaching infinity. Some participants suggest using the Squeeze Theorem to analyze the limit.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring different methods to approach the limit. Some guidance has been offered regarding the Squeeze Theorem, and there is acknowledgment of the periodic nature of \(\sin x\). However, there is no explicit consensus on the best approach yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem may not fit the typical application of L'Hôpital's Rule due to the nature of the functions involved. There is also a mention of the oversight regarding the periodic behavior of \(\sin x\).

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Homework Statement


Find the lim as x approaches infinity of \frac{sin x}{x-\pi}

The Attempt at a Solution


This was in the section for L'Hopital's Rule, but if you substitute infinity in the functions you don't get an indeterminate form. I don't know what to do next.
 
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Why not? With infinity, any number added to or subtracted from it is negligible. The pi becomes negligible and vanishes as x tends to infinity.
 
Fightfish said:
Why not? With infinity, any number added to or subtracted from it is negligible. The pi becomes negligible and vanishes as x tends to infinity.

Yes but what about sinx?
 
I'm not sure how to use L'Hopital's rule but I can use common sense. The maximum magnitude for sinx is 1. so say that we have the maximum value. Then there is infinity - pi at the bottom. which is going to be infinity. then you have 1 / infinity. giving 0.
 
elliotician said:
Yes but what about sinx?
Oops, an oversight on my part there. I apologise.

Hmm...the standard method is by the "Sandwich theorem" or "Squeeze theorem":

-\frac{1}{x - \pi} \leq \frac{sin\,x}{x - \pi} \leq \frac{1}{x -\pi}

Taking the limits as x tends to infinity of the upper and lower bounds gives 0, so this necessarily implies that your limit is 'squeezed' to zero as well.

It would appear that this question is not l'hospital's; sin x is a periodic oscillating function.
 
Last edited:
Oh! I completely forgot about that theorem. Good call. It's like they show it to you in the way beginning of calc I but you don't really use it that much.
 

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