# Find the probability of energy value after a given measurment

## Homework Statement

I am having a issue conceptualising the problem as I believe the answer is 0.

Part c)

## The Attempt at a Solution

My answer is 0 and it for the following reason. A the being say time t=0 the system is in some arbitary state, then when I got to measure the particle at t=t1 the wave function collapse into the ##e^{\frac{-iE_at_1}{\hbar}}|a \rangle## so then as it in this state when I go to measure the particle again the probability of it being ##E_b## is will be 0 as the two states are orthogonal to each other, have I assume the correctly?

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