Find the values of p for which the limit exists

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves determining the values of p for which the limit of the expression lim (x-->0+) xp sin (1/x) exists. The discussion encompasses the behavior of the limit as x approaches 0 from the positive side, particularly focusing on different cases for the value of p.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore three cases based on the value of p: p=0, p<0, and p>0. They discuss the implications of each case on the limit's existence.
  • Some participants question how to deduce the non-existence of the limit in the case of p=0, while others suggest using sequences to analyze the limit's behavior.
  • There is a focus on the oscillatory nature of sin(1/x) and how it affects the limit as x approaches 0.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various approaches being explored. Some participants have provided insights into using sequences to demonstrate the limit's behavior, while others are still seeking clarity on the implications of their findings. There is no explicit consensus yet, but productive lines of reasoning are being developed.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of selecting appropriate sequences to analyze the limit and highlight the oscillatory behavior of the sine function as a critical factor in determining the limit's existence.

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Homework Statement



Find the values of p for which the limit exists: lim (x-->0+) xp sin (1/x)

Homework Equations



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The Attempt at a Solution



Alright so I've broken it down to 3 cases:

p=0

then we have lim (x-->0+) x0sin (1/x) = lim (x-->0+) sin (1/x)
Let xn=1/nπ and yn=1/(2n + 1/2)π
f(xn)= sin (1/xn) = sin (nπ) n=1,2,...,n
lim (n-->∞) xn = 0
lim f(xn) = 0

I'm not too sure how to deduce that the limit doesn't exist here.

p<0

lim (x-->0+) xp sin (1/x)
f(xn) = (1/nπ)p sin (nπ)
f(yn) = (1/(2n + 1/2)π)p sin ((2n + 1/2)π)

lim (n-->∞) xn=0
lim (n-->∞) f(xn)=0

We have lim (n-->∞) xn=lim (n-->∞) f(xn)=0 so the lim (x-->0+) xp sin (1/x)=0

Not too sure about this conclusion either...

p>0

Using the squeezing theorem:

-1<sin(1/x)<1
-xp<xpsin(1/x)<xp

So if we have:
lim (x-->0+) xp=0
lim (x-->0+) -xp=0

Then, lim (x-->0+) xp=lim (x-->0+) -xp=lim (x-->0+) -xpsin(1/x)=0

Thanks in advance!
 
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frenchkiki said:
...

p=0

then we have lim (x-->0+) x0sin (1/x) = lim (x-->0+) sin (1/x)
Let xn=1/nπ and yn=1/(2n + 1/2)π
f(xn)= sin (1/xn) = sin (nπ) n=1,2,...,n
lim (n-->∞) xn = 0
lim f(xn) = 0

Instead of the sequence used here, pick one that has odd number multiples of 1/(π/2), i.e., 1/(π/2), 3/(π/2), 5/(π/2), ...

I'm not too sure how to deduce that the limit doesn't exist here.
...
 
OK then I get lim (n-->inf) x_n=+inf and
lim (n-->inf) f(x_n) =0. Is this enough to show that lim (x-->0+) sin (1/x) does not exist?
 
frenchkiki said:
OK then I get lim (n-->inf) x_n=+inf and
lim (n-->inf) f(x_n) =0. Is this enough to show that lim (x-->0+) sin (1/x) does not exist?

It's the sequence f(xn) that's of interest here.

So, if \displaystyle x_n=\frac{1}{(2n-1)\frac{\pi}{2}}\,, what is f(xn) ?
 
Last edited:
f(x_n)=sin (pi n I pi/2), then I get lim (n-->inf) f(x_n)=+inf and lim (n-->inf) x_n =0
 
SammyS said:
It's the sequence f(xn) that's of interest here.

So, if \displaystyle x_n=\frac{1}{(2n-1)\frac{\pi}{2}}\,, what is f(xn) ?
First look at 1/xn = (2n - 1)(π/2) = π/2, 3π/2, 5π/2, ... , for n = 1, 2, 3, ...

Of course (xn)0 = 1 .

So f(xx) = sin(π/2), sin(3π/2), sin(5π/2), ... = ? ? ?
 
SammyS said:
First look at 1/xn = (2n - 1)(π/2) = π/2, 3π/2, 5π/2, ... , for n = 1, 2, 3, ...

Of course (xn)0 = 1 .

So f(xx) = sin(π/2), sin(3π/2), sin(5π/2), ... = ? ? ?


so f(xn) is not defined because it oscillates between 1 and -1?
 
The sequence is certainly defined. It is the limit of the sequence that is not defined.
 
What is unclear to me is how to use the sequence to prove that the limit doesn't exist.
 
  • #10
Break the given sequence up into two sub-sequences; one with the odd terms, the other with the even terms.
 
  • #11
A brief visit at my professor's office clarified the problem. You pick two sequences xn and yn tending to 0. In the case p=0 case f(xn)=0 f(yn)=1 with xn=1/nπ and yn=1/(2n + 1/2)π.

then lim (n→∞) xn = 0 ≠ 1 = lim (n→∞) yn.

Therefore lim (x→0+) xp sin (1/x) does not exist for p=0.

Thank you both for your help.
 
  • #12
Yes, that was exactly what SammyS said.
 

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