Find Velocity of Electron: Combining Equations

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To find the velocity of an electron using its electrical charge, mass, and voltage difference, the equations for kinetic energy (Ek = ½ mv²) and change in electrical energy (ΔEe = QΔV) can be combined. By applying the principle of conservation of energy, the potential difference (pd) that accelerates the electron is converted into kinetic energy, leading to the equation QΔV = ½ mv². This allows for the derivation of the velocity formula v = √(2QΔV/m). The discussion highlights the confusion around combining these equations but confirms the validity of the approach through energy conservation principles. Understanding this relationship is crucial for solving the problem effectively.
Narv
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I need to find the velocity of an electron, and the information i have is the Electrical Charge, Mass and voltage difference. The math itself won't be the problem, but combining the two equations below to give the third is driving me nuts.

I need someone to explain how Ek (kinetic energy) could equal ΔEe (change in electrical energy) so they can be combined, or if I am totaly wrong, a point in the right direction:

Ek = ½ mv²

ΔEe = QΔV

To give:

v = √2QΔV/m

I was provided the final equation by a friend as a hint, and the only two equations i can find with relevant values are the two above, so I think I'm along the right track. Its just the reason WHY they can be combined that's confusing me.

Thank you.
 
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By conservation of energy, the pd used to speed up the electron is converted into KE.

hence QΔV=½ mv2
 
rock.freak667 said:
By conservation of energy, the pd used to speed up the electron is converted into KE.

hence QΔV=½ mv2

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Narv said:
You, Sir, are a wonderful human being, and will have the finest of riches, the most beautiful of women and the highest prestige when I accomplish world domination.

:smile::smile: I've never heard that one before!
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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