Finding a definite integral

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ainster31
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Homework Statement



Equation: b_n = integral from 0 to 1 of 1 times sin(n pi x / 2) dx, plus integral from 1 to 2 of (2 - x) sin(n pi x / 2) dx, equals 2/(n pi) + 4/(n^2 pi^2) sin(n pi / 2).


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Handwritten-style typeset derivation of Fourier coefficient b_n: integral from 0 to 1 of sin(nπx/2) plus integral from 1 to 2 of (2 − x) sin(nπx/2), evaluated by parts into terms with cos(nπ/2) and sin(nπ/2) over nπ and n²π².
 
Could you write some sentences too? You just posted a bunch of equations. So, could you tell us exactly the statement that needs to be proven. Tell us in words what you did. Tell us exactly where you are stuck.
 
R136a1 said:
Could you write some sentences too? You just posted a bunch of equations. So, could you tell us exactly the statement that needs to be proven. Tell us in words what you did. Tell us exactly where you are stuck.

bn needs to be computed. The solution is under 1.

I computed bn and the end result is under 3. The issue is that my end result doesn't match the solution's end result.
 
You got the same answer, just cancel the positive and negative
[tex]\frac{2}{n\pi} \cos\left( \frac{n\pi}{2} \right)[/tex]
that you have
 
Office_Shredder said:
You got the same answer, just cancel the positive and negative
[tex]\frac{2}{n\pi} \cos\left( \frac{n\pi}{2} \right)[/tex]
that you have

Thanks. These Fourier series problems are so painfully long T_T.