Finding a Second Solution to ODE xy''+y'+xy=0 with Integral Method

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding a second solution to the ordinary differential equation (ODE) xy'' + y' + xy = 0, given that one solution is y = ∫₀^{π} e^{ix cos(t)} dt. The task specifically asks for a second solution in integral form for x > 0.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the method of finding a second solution, with one suggesting the use of reduction of order. There is uncertainty about whether the second solution can be derived from the Wronskian or if it needs to be identified through other means. Some participants express skepticism about dividing by integrals in the proposed second solution.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different methods and expressing varying degrees of confidence in their approaches. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of reduction of order, but there is no explicit consensus on the best method to find the second solution.

Contextual Notes

There is a concern regarding the appropriateness of dividing by integrals in the context of the proposed second solution, indicating a potential assumption or misunderstanding that may need clarification.

Tangent87
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We're given the ODE xy''+y'+xy=0 and told that [tex]y=\int_0^{\pi} e^{ix\cos{t}}dt[/tex] is one solution and it asks to find a second solution in the form of an integral for x>0. I'm not sure how to do this, I don't think they mean the second solution derived from the Wronskian as that just wouldn't "look right" with an integral for the first solution? Also I've tried substituting in [tex]y=\int_{\gamma} f(t)e^{xt}dt[/tex] but I just get back to the solution they've already given us. Do you think you have to somehow just "spot" a second solution? Thanks.
 
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But that implies the second solution is:

[tex]y_2(x)=y_1(x)\int^x \frac{1}{uy_1(u)^2}du[/tex] where [tex]y_1(x)=\int_0^{\pi} e^{ix\cos{t}}dt[/tex]. Is that okay? I've been a bit suspect when we have expressions where we're dividing by integrals.
 
It's fine. The integral is just some function.
 
Gib Z said:
It's fine. The integral is just some function.

Ok, thanks.
 

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