Finding multivariate extrema with degenerate hessian matrix

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the conditions under which the function f(x,y) = ax^3 + by^3 + cx^4 + dy^4 - (x+y)^5 has a local minimum at the point (0,0). The original poster notes that both the gradient and Hessian matrix at this point are zero, leading to uncertainty about the nature of the critical point.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants suggest examining the function along specific lines through (0,0) to assess local minima. There is a discussion about the implications of having a zero Hessian matrix and the necessity of differentiability at the critical point. Some participants question the sufficiency of conditions for establishing a local minimum.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring various lines of reasoning and questioning assumptions about differentiability and the implications of the Hessian being zero. There is no explicit consensus, but several productive avenues are being considered.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the function may not be differentiable at (0,0), which raises questions about the applicability of certain methods for determining local minima. The original poster's constraints regarding the parameters a, b, c, and d are also acknowledged but not fully explored.

talolard
Messages
119
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


For what real values of the parameters a,b,c,d does the functiob f(x,y)=ax^3+by^3+cx^4+dy^4-(x+y)^5 have a local minimum at (0,0)

Homework Equations


I calculated the gradient at (0,0) and it is always zero regardless of parameters.
The problem is that the Hessian matrix is also zero so I don't know what kind of criticial point it is.
I also noticed that if (0,0) is a minimum then ax^3+by^3+cx^4+dy^4>(x+y)^5 in the nieberhood but that still hasnt taken me very far.
I don't see how I can use Lagrange multipliers, the inverse or implicit function theorems, since the gradient is 0 which precludes using them in any direct way. So my arsenal seems rather depleted.
Any ideas?
Thanks
Tal

The Attempt at a Solution

 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi talolard! :smile:

Your Hessian matrix is indeed zero, which means that we can't use it here. We'll have to use more direct methods.

Consider the lines y=\alpha x and x=0 through (0,0). If f has a local minimum in (0,0), then it must also be a local minimum on these lines. So it suffices to show that f(x,\alpha x) and f(0,y) have local minima in 0. And this is easy since the function has only one variable!
 
micromass said:
Hi talolard! :smile:

Your Hessian matrix is indeed zero, which means that we can't use it here. We'll have to use more direct methods.

Consider the lines y=\alpha x and x=0 through (0,0). If f has a local minimum in (0,0), then it must also be a local minimum on these lines. So it suffices to show that f(x,\alpha x) and f(0,y) have local minima in 0. And this is easy since the function has only one variable!

Perhaps I misunderstand your point, but those conditions are necessary but not sufficient to guarantee a local minimum.

f(x,y) = (y - x2)(y-2x2) has a local min along all rays through the origin but has a saddle point there.
 
LCKurtz said:
Perhaps I misunderstand your point, but those conditions are necessary but not sufficient to guarantee a local minimum.

f(x,y) = (y - x2)(y-2x2) has a local min along all rays through the origin but has a saddle point there.

I see your point, and I must admit I haven't really thought about it. But the point is that your f is not differentiable in 0 (I think). I guess that the method would work for differentiable maps (although I can't seem to find a proof for it now). Correct me if I'm wrong!

Edit: thinking some more about it leads me to think that it is not even true for differentiable maps. Can't really find a counterexample, but I don't think this is the way to prove it.
 
Last edited:
micromass said:
I see your point, and I must admit I haven't really thought about it. But the point is that your f is not differentiable in 0 (I think). I guess that the method would work for differentiable maps (although I can't seem to find a proof for it now). Correct me if I'm wrong!

Edit: thinking some more about it leads me to think that it is not even true for differentiable maps. Can't really find a counterexample, but I don't think this is the way to prove it.
No: the above f is just a product of polynomials, so is as differentiable as you could ever want.

RGV
 

Similar threads

Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
5K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
10
Views
1K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K