Finding secant with calculator

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    Calculator Secant
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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the secant function, specifically sec(pi/4) and sec(0), and clarifying the relationship between secant and inverse cosine functions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the definitions and relationships between secant and inverse cosine functions, questioning whether they are equivalent. There is confusion regarding the evaluation of sec(pi/4) and its representation as √2 versus 2/√2.

Discussion Status

Multiple interpretations of the secant function and its values are being explored. Some participants assert that 2/√2 and √2 are equivalent, while others express confusion over this equivalence. There is ongoing clarification about the calculations and definitions involved.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the depth of exploration into the concepts. There is a noted lack of consensus on the interpretation of secant values and their simplifications.

bobsmith76
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Homework Statement



what is sec(pi/4)
what is sec(0)



The Attempt at a Solution



First let me make sure that cos^-1, acos and sec, they are all the same right?

I put in cos^-1(pi/4) in my calculator and the answer I get is .667, which I think is the same as sec (pi/4). The book says the answer is √2
 
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bobsmith76 said:

Homework Statement



what is sec(pi/4)
what is sec(0)

The Attempt at a Solution



First let me make sure that cos^-1, acos and sec, they are all the same right?
No! They are not the same. The first two, cos-1 and acos (do you mean arccosine?) are the inverse cosine functions. Put it simply, if cos(π/6) = √3/2, then cos-1(√3/2) = π/6.

You are confusing these with secant, which is the reciprocal of cosine. In order to evaluate secant on the calculator, you need to type
1/cos(your angle).
 
But I still don't see why sec(pi/4) is √2, it should be 2/√2 and my book clearly says it's √2
 
Since √2 * √2 = 2, then 2/√2 = √2 .
 
That doesn't make sense. cos (pi/4) = √2/2. If you take the inverse, which is the secant, then it's 2/√2, not sqaure root of 2
 
You could do the following subtraction:
[itex]\displaystyle \sqrt{2}-\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}[/itex]​
The answer is zero.

Or the following multiplication:
[itex]\displaystyle \frac{\sqrt{2}}{1}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}[/itex]
 
Sammy, all that gives 2√2, the book clearly says otherwise

Screenshot2012-02-02at53653PM.png
 
What we're trying to tell you is that 2/√2 and √2 are just different ways of writing the same number. They are equal. They are the same. You and the book are both right.
 
bobsmith76 said:
Sammy, all that gives 2√2, the book clearly says otherwise
Actually, neither one gives 2√(2) .

[itex]\displaystyle \sqrt{2}-\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{\sqrt{2}\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}-\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}-\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}=0[/itex]

[itex]\displaystyle \frac{\sqrt{2}}{1}\cdot\frac{\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}= \frac{\sqrt{2}\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}}[/itex]

Screenshot2012-02-02at53653PM.png
⟵ This is correct !
 
  • #10
o, don't I feel stupid. thanks
 

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