Finding the Product of Integrals

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the calculation of the product of integrals, specifically when there is no closed-form expression for the integrals involved. Participants explore whether it is possible to express the product of two definite integrals as a double integral, particularly when the integrands are similar functions involving exponential decay.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant inquires about a formula for calculating the product of integrals when closed-form expressions for the integrals do not exist, specifically for functions of the form f(x) = x^p e^{-x} and g(y) = y^q e^{-y}.
  • Another participant asserts that if the limits of integration are equal, the product of the integrals can be expressed as a double integral over the same limits.
  • A subsequent reply confirms that the new integral formed is indeed a double integral.
  • Another participant argues that the limits do not need to match, stating that as long as the variables and ranges are independent, the integrals can be combined into a double integral regardless of the limits.
  • One participant identifies the principle being discussed as "Fubini's theorem."

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the product of integrals can be expressed as a double integral under certain conditions, particularly when the limits are equal. However, there is some contention regarding the necessity of matching limits, with differing views on the independence of variables and ranges.

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve the conditions under which the product of integrals can be combined, nor does it clarify the implications of using Fubini's theorem in this context.

drewfstr314
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Is there a formula for calculating the product of integrals, something like:

\left(\int_a^b f(x) dx\right) \times \left(\int_c^d g(y) dy\right)

when there is no closed-form expression for F(x) and G(y).

Actually, the functions are almost identical,

f(x) = x^p e^{-x} \text{ and } g(y) = y^q e^{-y}

where p, q are algebraic expressions.

F(x) = -\Gamma(x, p) \text{ and } G(x) = -\Gamma(y, q)

and \Gamma(x, p) is defined as another definite integral with an almost identical integrand.

Thus, is there a way to multiply definite integrals (without knowing the antiderivative) to form one (double?) integral?

Thanks
 
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If the limits are equal, yes. Then it is converted as follows:
\int^{a}_{b}f(x)dx \cdot \int^{a}_{b}g(y)dy = \int^{a}_{b}\int^{a}_{b}f(x)g(y)\,dy\,dx
 
Millennial said:
If the limits are equal, yes. Then it is converted as follows:
\int^{a}_{b}f(x)dx \cdot \int^{a}_{b}g(y)dy = \int^{a}_{b}\int^{a}_{b}f(x)g(y)\,dy\,dx

Is the new integral a double integral then?
 
Yes it is.
 
Millennial said:
If the limits are equal, yes. Then it is converted as follows:
\int^{a}_{b}f(x)dx \cdot \int^{a}_{b}g(y)dy = \int^{a}_{b}\int^{a}_{b}f(x)g(y)\,dy\,dx
There's no requirement that the limits match. As long as the variables and ranges involved are completely independent, you can always combine them into a double integral (in either order). Just make sure you keep track of which independent variable goes with which range.
 
That's "Fubini's theorem"
 

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