The question seems somehow flawed. I don't understand what the author wants to calculate. So here are some remarks:
As it seems to be a book, using the representation independent approach by Dirac, one should clearly distinguish the (abstract) Hilbert-space vectors ##|\psi \rangle## and wave functions in position or momentum space. Given a Hilbert-space vector ##|\psi \rangle## these wave functions are given by
$$\psi(x)=\langle x|\psi \rangle$$
and
$$\tilde{\psi}(p)=\langle p|\psi \rangle.$$
They are related by a Fourier transformation, using the well-known result for the generalized (!) momentum eigen functions in position representation
$$u_p(x)=\langle x|p \rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi \hbar}} \exp(\mathrm{i} p x/\hbar),$$
by
$$\psi(x)=\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} p \langle x|p \rangle \langle p|\psi \rangle = \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi \hbar}} \exp(\mathrm{i} p x/\hbar) \tilde{\psi}(p).$$
The momentum "eigenstate" ##|p_0 \rangle## cannot represent a physical particle state, because it's not square integrable. It's a generalized state. That you always have if you deal with self-adjoint operators with continuous "eigenvalues".
By the formulation of the problem one might guess that what's really meant refers to the following paper
M. Moshinsky, Diffraction in time, Phys. Rev.
88, 625 (1952)
https://doi.org/10.1103/PhysRev.88.625