Finite abelian group of size p-1

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SUMMARY

This discussion centers on the isomorphism of finite abelian groups G and G' of size n=pq, where p and q are distinct primes. It concludes that if q does not divide p-1, both groups must be cyclic and thus isomorphic. Conversely, if q divides p-1, G and G' may not be isomorphic. The discussion also highlights that having isomorphic subgroups does not guarantee the isomorphism of the original groups, as demonstrated by the example of C4 and C2 x C2.

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Suppose we have two finite abelian groups G,G^{\prime} of size n=pq, p,q being primes. G is cyclic.

Both G,G^{\prime} have subgroups H,H^{\prime}, both of size q. The factor groups G/H,\ G^{\prime}/H^{\prime} are cyclic and since they are of equal size, they are isomorphic. Are G,G^{\prime} also isomorphic?

Edit: The title is wrong. p-1 has nothing to do with this problem. Sorry about that.
 
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I don't think the groups G and G' are required to be isomorphic. You have already defined G so consider
G' = <a,b|a^{p}=b^{q}=e>
where e is the identity. This should be a suitable counter example -try working through it.

If I am wrong about it being a counter example then this should prove that G and G' are required to be isomorphic as there are only two non-isomorphic groups of order pq with p and q being prime.

Hope this helps.
 
EDIT: sorry for that earlier post

Let p > q. Now, if q does not divide p-1 then any group of order p*q must be cyclic. (This is a result which can be proved easily with sylow's theorems)
A simple example are groups of order 15 = 5*3.

If on the other hand, q does divide p-1 then this group must be non-abelian. (The proof for this is a bit involved, but it can be found in some textbook like herstein).

Now since, you have already stated that G is cyclic. This implies q does not divide p-1. Then G must be cyclic and so must be G'. Hence they must be isomorphic.

Suppose p = q. In this case, its really difficult to say anything, because G' has two possible structures:
1. a cyclic group of order p^2.
2. a group isomorphic to C_p x C_p. (C_p is the cyclic group of order p)

I'll try to find the references containing the proofs for the results I have stated above and post them later, but I hope this was useful.
 
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Thirsty dog, the group you defined for G' is infinite: it is the free product of C_p and C_q.Do you know an structure theorems for finite abelian groups? Are you supposed to assume that p and q are distinct primes?
 
Hey Matt,

I forgot to say Abelian... I am guessing you realized this by your next comment.

I was under the impression that any finite Abelian group is expressible as the Cartesian products of a finite number of cyclic groups whose orders are prime powers.

I think that if p and q are distinct then the cyclic group of order pq is isomorphic to the Cartesian of cyclic groups of order p and q. If p and q are equal then no such isomorphism exist.

This says in terms of the original question G and G' are definitely isomorphic if p is distinct from q. But if p=q then G and G' are not always isomorphic. Ancient_Nomad has pointed this out.
 
Intuitively, I would guess that H,H' are isomorphic => G,G' are isomorphic...
 
Consider
C_{4} = <c|c^{4}=e> \mbox{ and } C_{2}\times C_{2} = <a,b|a^{2}=b^{2}=e,ab=ba>
These are clearly not isomorphic as the first has an element of order 4 while the latter does not.

We can choose the subgroups
H = <c^{2}> \mbox{ and } H' = <a>
Thus H and H' are isomorphic. Also
C_{4}/H \cong C_{2} \cong C_{2}\times C_{2}/H'

This shows that just because an two Abelian groups can have isomorphic subgroups and their quotients are also isomorphic doesn't imply the original groups are.
 

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