MHB Finite Integral Domains .... Adkins & Weintraub, Proposition 1.5 ....

Math Amateur
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,920
Reaction score
48
I am reading "Algebra: An Approach via Module Theory" by William A. Adkins and Steven H. Weintraub ...

I am currently focused on Chapter 2: Rings ...

I need help with an aspect of the proof of Proposition 1.5 ... ...

Proposition 1.5 and its proof read as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/7924
At the end of the above proof from Adkins and Weintraub we read the following:

" ... ... and hence $$\phi_a (R) = R$$. In particular, the equation $$ax = 1$$ is solvable for every $$a \neq 0$$ and $$R$$ is a field. ... ... "
Can someone please explain to me how the conclusion that "the equation $$ax = 1$$ is solvable for every $$a \neq 0$$ and $$R$$ is a field" follows from the arguments preceding it ...

Basically I do not understand how the arguments before this statement lead to the conclusion ...Help will be much appreciated ...

Peter
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi Peter,

Assume that $R$ contains $n$ elements. If $R$ is an integral domain and $a\ne0$, the $n$ elements $ax_1,\ldots,ax_n$ are all distinct.

As $|R|=n$, these elements are just the elements of $R$ in a different order; in particular, one of these elements is equal to $1$.

Now, $ax_i=1$ means that $x_i$ is a multiplicative inverse of $a$; as such an inverse exists for each $a\ne0$, $R$ is a field.
 
castor28 said:
Hi Peter,

Assume that $R$ contains $n$ elements. If $R$ is an integral domain and $a\ne0$, the $n$ elements $ax_1,\ldots,ax_n$ are all distinct.

As $|R|=n$, these elements are just the elements of $R$ in a different order; in particular, one of these elements is equal to $1$.

Now, $ax_i=1$ means that $x_i$ is a multiplicative inverse of $a$; as such an inverse exists for each $a\ne0$, $R$ is a field.
Thanks castor28 ...

Most helpful ...

Peter
 
Thread 'How to define a vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K