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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi,

I just learned about the First Fundamental theorem of calculus. From my understanding, it talks specifically about definite integrals. I was wondering if there is any sort of theorem that proves that the derivative of the indefinite integral of a function is equal to the function itself.

Thank you in advance!

I just learned about the First Fundamental theorem of calculus. From my understanding, it talks specifically about definite integrals. I was wondering if there is any sort of theorem that proves that the derivative of the indefinite integral of a function is equal to the function itself.

Thank you in advance!