Form Factor for Scattering (like muons off of protons)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on demonstrating that the form factor \( F(q) \) approaches 1 as \( q \) approaches 0 in the context of muon scattering off protons. The key insight is that while the individual limits of the sine and cosine functions diverge, the overall behavior of the term can be evaluated using power series expansions. Specifically, expressing \( \sin x \) and \( \cos x \) as power series up to \( q^3 \) reveals that the combined term converges appropriately, leading to the conclusion that \( F(q) \rightarrow 1 \) as \( q \rightarrow 0 \).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of form factors in particle physics
  • Familiarity with limits and continuity in calculus
  • Knowledge of power series expansions for trigonometric functions
  • Basic concepts of scattering theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of form factors in quantum field theory
  • Learn about power series expansions in calculus
  • Explore the implications of scattering theory in particle physics
  • Investigate the behavior of limits in trigonometric functions
USEFUL FOR

Students and researchers in particle physics, particularly those studying scattering processes and form factors, will benefit from this discussion. It is also useful for anyone looking to deepen their understanding of mathematical techniques applied in physics.

Martin89
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Homework Statement


Form factor.png


Homework Equations


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The Attempt at a Solution


I am trying to complete the last part of this question, part 5(c). My professor has told me that the form factor $$F(q)\rightarrow1$$ as $$q\rightarrow0$$ but I am unsure how to show this.

I believe that $$\lim_{{q }\rightarrow0} \frac{\sin\left( qRh/\hbar\right)}{q^3}=\infty,$$ and $$
\lim_{{q }\rightarrow0} \frac{\cos\left( qRh/\hbar\right)}{q^2}=\infty.$$ Is someone able to please show me where I am going wrong? Thanks.
 

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Consider the term in brackets. Express sin x and cos x as power series in x, and evaluate this term as far as q2.
 
mjc123 said:
Consider the term in brackets. Express sin x and cos x as power series in x, and evaluate this term as far as q2.

Thanks for the help. I discovered that I had to express sinx in powers up to q3 to solve correctly.
 
Yes, but as the sin term is divided by q, the whole term in brackets goes up to q2. That's what I meant.
The key point is that if you treat the sin and cos terms separately, they both tend to infinity, but the whole term does not.
 

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