Fourier Transform and Parseval's Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Parseval's theorem and the properties of the Fourier transform, specifically in relation to the product of two functions, ##f(t)## and ##g(t)##. Participants are exploring how to demonstrate that the Fourier transform of the product can be expressed in terms of the Fourier transforms of the individual functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to derive the Fourier transform of the product of two functions and are questioning the role of the exponential term in the Fourier transform definition. There is discussion about the implications of the term ##G(\nu-s)## and its relation to shifting or delaying the input. Some participants are also clarifying the notation used for the Fourier transforms and exploring the duality property.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and clarifications regarding the definitions and properties involved. Some have offered guidance on how to manipulate the expressions using Parseval's theorem, while others are questioning specific terms and notations. There is a recognition of the need to establish a clear connection between the Fourier transforms and the product of the functions.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating potential misunderstandings regarding the notation and definitions used in their coursework. There is also a focus on ensuring that the mathematical expressions align with the established properties of Fourier transforms.

roam
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Homework Statement


Using Parseval's theorem,

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} h(\tau) r(\tau) d\tau = \int^\infty_{-\infty} H(s)R(-s) ds$$

and the properties of the Fourier transform, show that the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## is

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$

Homework Equations


Fourier transform for ##f(t)g(t)## is defined as:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi \nu t} dt$$

The Attempt at a Solution


So starting from the definition of Fourier transform:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi \nu t} dt$$

So, do we need to ignore the exponential term here? If we ignore it, we can apply Parseval's theorem to get the frequency domain:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(- s) d s$$

Now, what property of the Fourier transform can I use to get ##G(-s) \implies G(\nu-s)##?

I don't understand what the ##(\nu-s)## part means, does it indicates some sort of shifting or delay in the input? :confused:

Any help is greatly appreciated.
 
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I think you forgot an ##i## in the exponent in the definition of Fourier transform.

You cannot just ignore the exponential term in ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t)g(t) e^{-2 \pi iv t} dt##

Start with ##G(v-s)## for a fixed ##v##.
Write out the formula for ##G(v-s)##, and you will note that ##G(v-s)=\mathcal F (g_v(-s))## for some function ##g_v## (##\mathcal F## denotes the Fourier transform).

Using that knowledge about ##G(v-s)##, apply Parseval's theorem to ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(v-s)ds## and see what you get ...

A little remark about terminology:
roam said:
show that the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## is

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$
It is clearer when you write something like:
the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)## in ##\nu## is $$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(\nu-s)ds$$
 
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Thank you for your input. In ##g_v## what does the subscript ##v## mean? Should it not be ##g_t## since ##G(s)## is the Fourier transform of ##g(t)##? (In my course a function denoted by a capital letter is the Fourier transform of the function denoted by the corresponding small letter)

So from the definition, the formula for the ##G(v-s)## part is:

$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-i 2 \pi st} dt$$

Here I used the duality property of the Fourier transform i.e. ##F(t) \iff f(-s)##

Is this the right formula?
 
roam said:
Thank you for your input. In ##g_v## what does the subscript ##v## mean? Should it not be ##g_t## since ##G(s)## is the Fourier transform of ##g(t)##? (In my course a function denoted by a capital letter is the Fourier transform of the function denoted by the corresponding small letter)

So from the definition, the formula for the ##G(v-s)## part is:

$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-i 2 \pi st} dt$$

Here I used the duality property of the Fourier transform i.e. ##F(t) \iff f(-s)##

Is this the right formula?
There is no ##v## in your right hand side expression for ##G(v-s)##, so that can't be correct.

I really meant ##g_v##. Just pick one ##v## as a constant and let's work with that for a while.

In general, the definition of the Fourier transform is:
$$G(u) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-2 \pi iut} dt$$

I deliberately used another name for the variable here.
Now set ##u=v-s## in that definition. You get:
$$G(v-s) = \int^\infty_{-\infty} g(t) e^{-2 \pi i(v-s)t} dt=\int^\infty_{-\infty} \Big(g(t)e^{- 2 \pi ivt}\Big)e^{-2 \pi i(-s)t} dt$$

Compare that last expression with the definition of the Fourier transform. What we have there is the Fourier transform of the function between the big brackets at the point ##-s##. So now name the function between the big brackets ##g_v##, and what we have is that:
$$g_v(t)=g(t)e^{-2 \pi ivt}$$
$$G(v-s)=\mathcal F(g_v(-s))$$
Or, if you prefer the convention of your course:
$$G(v-s)=G_v(-s)$$
Now apply this to evaluate ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s)G(v-s)ds##, by using Parseval's theorem.
 
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Never mind. I thought something was wrong, but I was wrong about that.

My sincere apologies for my confusion.
 
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I see. Thank you very much for the clear explanation.

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G_\nu (-s) ds$$

using Parseval's theorem this becomes:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g_\nu (t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t} dt$$

Is this then sufficient to 'show' that ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s)ds## is the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)##?
 
roam said:
I see. Thank you very much for the clear explanation.

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds = \int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G_\nu (-s) ds$$

using Parseval's theorem this becomes:

$$\int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g_\nu (t) dt = \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t} dt$$

Is this then sufficient to 'show' that ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s)ds## is the Fourier transform of ##f(t)g(t)##?
Yes, because taking the two equations together, you now proved that for any ##\nu##: $$ \int^\infty_{-\infty} f(t) g(t) e^{-2 \pi i \nu t}=\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds$$
The left hand side is by definition the Fourier transform of the function ##f.g## at point ##\nu##.

As an aside, ##\int^\infty_{-\infty} F(s) G(\nu -s) ds## is called the convolution of F and G at ##\nu##. (More here and here)
 
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Thank you so much for your help. That was very helpful.
 

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