MHB Fourier Transform: Calculate $\hat{g}(\omega)$

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on calculating the Fourier transform of the function g(x) = |x|. The initial calculation presented is questioned regarding its validity, particularly the limit as x approaches infinity. It is noted that the function |x| does not meet the necessary integrability conditions for a Fourier transform, as it diverges to infinity. The possibility of using distribution theory to analyze the function's Fourier transform is also raised. Ultimately, the consensus is that |x| does not have a valid Fourier transform under standard definitions.
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,741
Reaction score
0
Hello! (Wave)

I want to calculate the Fourier transform of $g(x)=|x|$.

I got so far that $\hat{g}(\omega)=2 \left[ \frac{x \sin{(x \omega)}}{\omega}\right]_{x=0}^{+\infty}-2 \int_0^{+\infty} \frac{\sin{(x \omega)}}{\omega} dx$

Is it right so far?

How can we calculate $\lim_{x \to +\infty} \frac{x \sin{(\omega x)}}{\omega}$ ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
What's your definition of the Fourier Transform (including constants)?
 
Ackbach said:
What's your definition of the Fourier Transform (including constants)?

$$\hat{g}(\omega)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} g(x) e^{-i x \omega} dx$$
 
evinda said:
Hello! (Wave)

I want to calculate the Fourier transform of $g(x)=|x|$.

I got so far that $\hat{g}(\omega)=2 \left[ \frac{x \sin{(x \omega)}}{\omega}\right]_{x=0}^{+\infty}-2 \int_0^{+\infty} \frac{\sin{(x \omega)}}{\omega} dx$

Is it right so far?

How can we calculate $\lim_{x \to +\infty} \frac{x \sin{(\omega x)}}{\omega}$ ?
For a function to have a Fourier transform, it has to satisfy some integrability condition. The function $|x|$ is not at all integrable, in fact it tends to infinity as $x\to\infty$. I don't think there is any sense in which this function can have a Fourier transform.
 
Opalg said:
For a function to have a Fourier transform, it has to satisfy some integrability condition. The function $|x|$ is not at all integrable, in fact it tends to infinity as $x\to\infty$. I don't think there is any sense in which this function can have a Fourier transform.

Neither using distribution theory?
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K