Fourier Transform of cos(2*pi*t)

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SUMMARY

The Fourier Transform of cos(2πt) results in delta(1) + delta(-1). By substituting into the Fourier Transform formula and utilizing Euler's formula, the integral of the product of two trigonometric functions yields non-zero values only when their frequencies match, specifically at F = 1. The integral of two different frequency functions equals zero, confirming the non-zero result at these specific delta functions. This conclusion is essential for understanding the behavior of Fourier Transforms in signal processing.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Fourier Transform concepts
  • Familiarity with Euler's formula
  • Knowledge of trigonometric identities
  • Basic calculus, particularly integration techniques
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  • Study the properties of the Fourier Transform in detail
  • Learn about delta functions and their applications in signal processing
  • Explore trigonometric identities and their proofs
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BriWel
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I have a practice question, which is to find the Fourier Transform of cos(2^pi^t)

By substitution into the FT formula, and use of eulers formula,I have managed to reduced to:

INTEGRALOF ( (cos(2*pi*t) * ( cos(2*pi*F*t) - j*sin(2*pi*F*t) ) )

By plotting the frequency graph of the original function, I know that the answer I am looking for is: delta(1) + delta(-1)

I have also been told that the integral of two trig functions multiplied together equals 0 if the functions have different frequencies. This indicates that the above formula is only non-zero where F = 1.

My problem is that I don't know how to get from the above formula to delta(1) and delta (-1). Can anybody help?

Also, I'm relatively new to Fourier Transforms, so as much detail as possible in answers will be appreciated!

thanks in advance for any help
 
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Welcome to PF!

Hi BriWel! Welcome to PF! :smile:

(have a pi: π and a delta: δ and an integral: ∫ and try using the X2 tag just above the Reply box :wink:)
BriWel said:
I have also been told that the integral of two trig functions multiplied together equals 0 if the functions have different frequencies. This indicates that the above formula is only non-zero where F = 1.

My problem is that I don't know how to get from the above formula to delta(1) and delta (-1). Can anybody help?

You need to learn your https://www.physicsforums.com/library.php?do=view_item&itemid=18"

in this case, 2cosxcosy = cos(x+y) + cos(x-y) and 2sinxcosy = sin(x+y) + sin(x-y) …

and then you should be able to prove that the ∫0 is 0 unless x = ±y :wink:
 
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