Fraction decomposition for inverse Laplace

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on solving the initial value problem defined by the differential equation y'' + 2y' + 2y = δ(t-π) with initial conditions y(0) = 1 and y'(0) = 0 using Laplace transforms. The Laplace transform of the equation is derived as L(y) = (e^(-πs) + s + 2)/(s^2 + 2s + 2). The main challenge discussed is the decomposition of the equation, particularly the difficulty in factoring the denominator and finding the inverse Laplace transform. The correct form of the denominator after completing the square is (s + 1)^2 + 1, leading to the conclusion that the inverse Laplace transform can be expressed using standard results.

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nateja
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Homework Statement


Find the solution of the givien initial value problem and draw its graph
y''+2y'+2y = δ(t-π) y(0) = 1, y'(0) = 0


Homework Equations



A Laplace transform chart would be very useful

The Attempt at a Solution



I chose to solve the equation with Laplace transforms. I took the laplace of the whole equation and then solved for the L(y):

L(y) = (e^(-πs)+s+2)/(s^2+2s+2)
I double checked to make sure I didn't make any errors in my Laplace calculation and I did the algerbra correctly. So I have the right equation. However, my issue is now decomposing this equation - how do you do that?

You can't factor out the denominator? and I can't just set the numerator to As+B can I? The e^s term would make that useless...

Any ideas?
 
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and just to explain, π is pi and δ is delta for dirac delta function
 
I tried to use complete the square on the denominator to see if I could break it up more. I got s = -1 + i and s = -1 - i... so I don't know what to do with that at all. I'll keep trying though...
 
nateja said:

Homework Statement


Find the solution of the givien initial value problem and draw its graph
y''+2y'+2y = δ(t-π) y(0) = 1, y'(0) = 0

Homework Equations



A Laplace transform chart would be very useful

The Attempt at a Solution



I chose to solve the equation with Laplace transforms. I took the laplace of the whole equation and then solved for the L(y):

L(y) = (e^(-πs)+s+2)/(s^2+2s+2)
I double checked to make sure I didn't make any errors in my Laplace calculation and I did the algerbra correctly. So I have the right equation. However, my issue is now decomposing this equation - how do you do that?

You can't factor out the denominator? and I can't just set the numerator to As+B can I? The e^s term would make that useless...

Any ideas?

If you complete the square in the denominator, you'll get s2 + 2s + 1 + 1 = (s + 1)2 + 1.
 
nateja said:

Homework Statement


Find the solution of the givien initial value problem and draw its graph
y''+2y'+2y = δ(t-π) y(0) = 1, y'(0) = 0


Homework Equations



A Laplace transform chart would be very useful

The Attempt at a Solution



I chose to solve the equation with Laplace transforms. I took the laplace of the whole equation and then solved for the L(y):

L(y) = (e^(-πs)+s+2)/(s^2+2s+2)
I double checked to make sure I didn't make any errors in my Laplace calculation and I did the algerbra correctly. So I have the right equation. However, my issue is now decomposing this equation - how do you do that?

You can't factor out the denominator? and I can't just set the numerator to As+B can I? The e^s term would make that useless...

Any ideas?

L(y)(s) = exp(-πs)/(s^2+2s+2) + (s+2)/(s^2+2s+2). Can you find the inverse LT of 1/(s^2+2s+2)? If so, getting the inverse LT of exp(-πs)/(s^2+2s+2) is easy, just using some standard results about Laplace transforms. You can look them up for yourself.
 
Ray Vickson said:
L(y)(s) = exp(-πs)/(s^2+2s+2) + (s+2)/(s^2+2s+2).

I got this. I also noticed my mistake in completing the square and solved that. I got (s+1)^2 +1 for the denominator now.

So I should get the inverse laplace as uπ(t)*t*e^(-t) + ?

I am getting (s+2)/((s+1)^2 + 1) which does not have an inverse laplace in the chart. The nearest thing is laplace of e^(at)*cos(bt) which is not exactly equivalent because the 'a' term doesn't match.
 
Also,

Laplace inverse of s/((s+1)^2+1) + 2 * 1/((s+1)^2+1) does not work out either.

The first term is close to the laplace of e^(at)*cos(bt); however, it is not exact again. The second term will be 2*e^(-t)*sin(t)

I can't see any way to tinker with the algerbra without adding on new terms and creating more inverse laplaces...

Would adding (1-1)/((s+1)^2+1) to y give you y = uπ(t)*t*e^(-t) + e^(-t)cos(t) + e^(-t)*sin(t)

I'm pretty sure adding 0 is legal. Does that check out with you guys?
 

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