- #1
asimov42
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- TL;DR Summary
- Wilczek seems to think they're real.
Hi all, - an initial apology - there are a large number of threads on virtual particles on the site, and I apologize for adding another one. I had two questions - on a related note, the guidance provided by @A. Neumaier's FAW on virtual particles has been highly valuable for a novice .
1) Upon doing a bit more reading I found this letter that was posted here on PF (written by Frank Wilczek) about the reality of virtual particles:
It comes down to what you mean by "really there". When we use a concept with great success and precision to describe empirical observations, I'm inclined to include that concept in my inventory of reality. By that standard, virtual particles qualify. On the other hand, the very meaning of "virtual" is that they (i.e., virtual particles) don't appear *directly* in experimental apparatus. Of course, they do appear when you allow yourself a very little boldness in interpreting observations. It comes down to a matter of taste how you express the objective situation in ordinary language, since ordinary language was not designed to deal with the surprising discoveries of modern physics.
This honestly bothers me - as a Nobel physicists, he's implying that he takes virtual particles as being real (although, yes, there's a mixed message - but "inventory of reality" is odd phrasing to me). In light of @A. Neumaiers FAQ this seems ridiculous - does anyone know of other quotes form Wilczek where he makes his position more clear?
2) Since I am not yet at the level where I can write down all the Feynman diagrams for a specific event - is there always an amplitude associated with an ingoing leg reaching the outgoing leg unchanged ... as in, since were summing over all paths (before renormalization, should there not always be one term that defined the event "nothing happened" ... hope that somewhat clear.
1) Upon doing a bit more reading I found this letter that was posted here on PF (written by Frank Wilczek) about the reality of virtual particles:
It comes down to what you mean by "really there". When we use a concept with great success and precision to describe empirical observations, I'm inclined to include that concept in my inventory of reality. By that standard, virtual particles qualify. On the other hand, the very meaning of "virtual" is that they (i.e., virtual particles) don't appear *directly* in experimental apparatus. Of course, they do appear when you allow yourself a very little boldness in interpreting observations. It comes down to a matter of taste how you express the objective situation in ordinary language, since ordinary language was not designed to deal with the surprising discoveries of modern physics.
This honestly bothers me - as a Nobel physicists, he's implying that he takes virtual particles as being real (although, yes, there's a mixed message - but "inventory of reality" is odd phrasing to me). In light of @A. Neumaiers FAQ this seems ridiculous - does anyone know of other quotes form Wilczek where he makes his position more clear?
2) Since I am not yet at the level where I can write down all the Feynman diagrams for a specific event - is there always an amplitude associated with an ingoing leg reaching the outgoing leg unchanged ... as in, since were summing over all paths (before renormalization, should there not always be one term that defined the event "nothing happened" ... hope that somewhat clear.
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