Free, Massless Boson Propagator in Two Dimensions?

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Homework Statement


Cosider a single, free, massless boson with action [itex]S=\int\mathcal{L}=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int\partial X \overline{\partial}X[/itex] in two dimensions [itex]\overline{\partial}X(z,\overline{z}) = \partial_{\overline{z}} X(z,\overline{z})[/itex]
Show, that the propagator [itex]\langle X(z,\overline{z})X(w,\overline{w})\rangle=-\frac{1}{2}log|z-w|[/itex].
Use [itex]z=\sigma^{1}+i\sigma^{0}[/itex] and the integration measure [itex]2i\, dz\wedge d\overline{z}=d\sigma^{1}\wedge d\sigma^{0}[/itex].
[itex]\sigma^{0}, \sigma^{1}[/itex] are the real coordiates.

Homework Equations


[itex]\langle X(z,\overline{z})X(w,\overline{w})\rangle = \frac{\int_X exp(-S[X])X(z,\overline{z})X(w,\overline{w})}{\int_X exp(-S[X])}[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution


Unfortuntely, I don't really know how to start. I don't even know why the integration measure is [itex]2i\, dz\wedge d\overline{z}=d\sigma^{1}\wedge d\sigma^{0}[/itex].
It would be very nice if someone could just give me an ansatz.
 
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Thanks, that is helpful, indeed. But I still have some trouble with the formulation in complex coordinates.

That's how I far I got:
The path integral of a total derivative vanishes. Therefore, I obtain:
[itex]0=\int\mathcal{D}X\frac{\delta}{\delta X(z,\overline{z})}(e^{-S}X(w,\overline{w})) = \int\mathcal{D}X\, e^{-S}\left[-\frac{\delta S}{\delta X(z,\overline{z})}X(w,\overline{w})+\delta(w-\overline{w})\delta(z-\overline{z})\right][/itex]

Now, I have to evaluate the functional derivative of the action:
[itex]\frac{\delta S}{\delta X(z,\overline{z})}<br /> = \frac{1}{2\pi}\frac{\delta}{\delta X(z,\overline{z})}\int dzd\overline{z} \partial X \overline{\partial}X[/itex]
[itex]= \frac{1}{2\pi} \int dzd\overline{z}\frac{\delta} {\delta X(z,\overline{z})}(\partial X)\overline{\partial}X+\partial X\frac{\delta}{\delta X(z,\overline{z})}(\overline{\partial}X)[/itex]
[itex]=-\frac{1}{\pi}\partial\overline{\partial} X(z,\overline{z})[/itex]
In the last step I have used integration by parts with vanishing boundary terms.

Plugging this into the equation above I find:
[itex]0=\int\mathcal{D}X\, e^{-S} \left[\frac{1}{\pi} \partial \overline{\partial} X(z,\overline{z})X(w,\overline{w})+\delta(w-\overline{w})\delta(z-\overline{z})\right][/itex]
[itex]\Rightarrow \partial\overline{\partial} X(z,\overline{z})X(w,\overline{w}) = -\pi\delta(w-\overline{w})\delta(z-\overline{z})[/itex]

Next, I must show that [itex]X(z,\overline{z})X(w,\overline{w})=-\frac{1}{2}ln|z-w|[/itex] solves this equation, but I am unable to do so:
It would be suffiecient to show: [itex]-\frac{1}{2}\int dzd\overline{z} \,\partial\overline{\partial}ln|z-w| = \pi[/itex]
But here I fail:
[itex]\int dzd\overline{z}\, \partial\overline{\partial}ln|z-w|=\int dzd\overline{z}\,\overline{\partial}\frac{1}{z-w} = \ldots[/itex]

Can someone tell me how to proceed?