Friction problem from Halliday and Resnick

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The discussion revolves around a physics problem involving a 1000kg boat decelerating due to friction when its engine is turned off. The frictional force is proportional to the boat's speed, leading to a non-constant acceleration scenario. The user seeks help in formulating the problem into a differential equation to determine the time required for the boat to slow from 90 km/h to 45 km/h. They express confusion over integrating the equation and understanding the relationship between velocity and time. The conversation highlights the need for a better grasp of differential equations to solve such problems effectively.
Farnak
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Hi, new member here ^_^

"A 1000kg boat is traveling at 90km/h when its engine is shut off. The magnitude of the frictional force f_k between boat and water is proportional to the speed v of the boat: f_k = 70v, where v is in meters per second and f_k is in Newtons. Find the time required for the boat to slow to 45 km/h."

From what I'm getting, the only force on the boat is the force of kinetic friction and as time passes the velocity decreases, so the force of kinetic friction's magnitude will decrease as well. So this will decrease the magnitude of the acceleration and cause velocity to decrease more slowly as time passes by ...

I'm having trouble putting all that together not being used to dealing with non-constant acceleration problems so could someone please help me organize my thoughts for this problem? Thanks!
 
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This can be summarized neatly in the differential equation,

F = -kv = ma = m\frac{dv}{dt}

where k is the constant of proportionality in the problem. Along with the initial condition v(0) = 90km/h, this equation can be solved to give you v(t). Would you know how to do that? Does this make sense to you?
 
Are you supposed to solve the equation through integration? If so, I think I'm messing up:

-kv = m (dv/dt)
Integrating both sides
(-k/2)v^2 + C = mv

But an equation like this gives me a constant value for velocity =( ... where did I mess up?
 
Farnak said:
-kv = m (dv/dt)
Integrating both sides
(-k/2)v^2 + C = mv

-kv=mdv/dt
therefore b*dv/v=dt where b= -m/k
therefore b*loge(vf/vi)=t
where vf and vi are the final n initial velocities...
 
Ahhh ok, so I guess I need to learn differential equations if I want to read more, sorry for the calculus stupidity, thanks!
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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