Friction problem- possible error in Halliday/Resnick

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Homework Statement



See attachment. I am only concerned with part b). Part a) is solved.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



See attachment. The solution is quoted to be tan-1s) = θ0, but, as can be seen by my solution, this is impossible based on the derivation. Is this their error, or mine?
 

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What did you do for part a?
Not sure if it will work, but try taking your answer for part a, and having v->0.
 
I solved for F in part a). I display the results (verified correct) at the top of the page. I'd like to see how the value for theta naught is explicity obtained.
 
You said the solution is tan(μs) = θ0. Do you mean tan-1s) = θ0?
 
Yes, apologies- it's edited now.
 
Well, just take the limit when force goes to infinity. When the angle is less than θ0, no amount of force will be able to move the mop.
 
I considered that, but I wondered if there were any better ways of showing this. Plus, this example is from an elementary (Halliday/Resnick) text, and such un-straightforward proofs seem unwarranted in problem-solving. Just some thoughts. Is an explicit derivation out of the question?
 
This seems like one of the more "challenging" problems. As such, more out-of-the-box thinking is required. This method is pretty good as it stands. What would you consider a "better" way?
Why is this an "un-straightforward proof" or not "an explicit derivation"?
 
Fair enough. The only reason I said what I did above was because other problems and results derived throughout the book are a bit more explicit in using Newton's laws to demonstrate the results. I can accept this method, just inquiring about other manners.
 
The value for F should be multiplied by μk.
 
You overcomplicate the problem a bit.
You got [tex]F=\frac{mg\mu_k}{\sin(\theta)-\mu_k \cos(\theta)}[/tex]
The mop is pushed, so it can not be negative. What does it mean for theta?

ehild