Friction Sliding Homework: Solve Part 1-3

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The discussion focuses on solving a friction sliding homework problem involving a race car. The kinetic energy of the car is correctly calculated as 80 kJ. For the work done by friction when the car stops, the calculation is also confirmed to be 80 kJ. In the third part, the user initially miscalculates the distance the car slides but later corrects it, finding that the car slides 80 meters. Overall, the user receives guidance on correcting their approach to the problems.
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Homework Statement



I'm positive Part 1 is right, 2 and 3 I'm sketchy with.

1. A race car with mass 1000 kg moves at speed 40 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the car in kiloJoules? Do not write the unit in your answer.

For this I got 1/2(1000)(40^2) = 800000 convert to kilojoules = 80

2. The car in the previous problem locks its brakes and slides to a stop due to a constant frictional force. How much work was done by this force? Express your answer in kiloJoules but as usual do not write the unit as part of your answer.

= 1/2(1000)(40^2) - 1/2(1000)(0^2) = 80000 = 80kilojoules?

3. If the car in the previous two problems slides to rest with a constant frictional force of magnitude 10,000 N, how far does it slide? Express your answers in meters, but do not write the unit in your answer.

This one is below.

Homework Equations



1/2m(v^2)
vf^2 = vi^2 - 2*a*d

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm really not sure how to do this. I tried finding acceleration which I believe is 10,000N / 1000kg = 10m/s

Then I just tried to use an equation of kinematics...

= 0^2 = 25^2 + 2(10)(d) and I get -31.25 for that, but I don't think that's right ^_^;.

I appreciate any help :biggrin:
 
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1 and 2 look good.
For 3 you have
vf^2 = vi^2 - 2*a*d
0^2 = 25^2 + 2(10)(d)
Isn't that formula supposed to have a plus sign instead of a minus?
Of course when you put in a = -10, you'll then get a minus sign.
And the 25 should be 40.

Also can be done using the work formula - a little less "work" involved.
 
Delphi51 said:
1 and 2 look good.
For 3 you have
vf^2 = vi^2 - 2*a*d
0^2 = 25^2 + 2(10)(d)
Isn't that formula supposed to have a plus sign instead of a minus?
Of course when you put in a = -10, you'll then get a minus sign.
And the 25 should be 40.

Also can be done using the work formula - a little less "work" involved.

Why in the hell did I plug in 25? I kill myself sometimes... :blushing:

so yeah 1600 = 20d ----> d = 80

Thank you very much sir. :approve:
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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