Friedmann equation - show Big Bang happened given conditions

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of the Friedmann equations to demonstrate that under the conditions of positive expansion rate (##\dot{a} > 0##), negative curvature (##k < 0##), and positive density (##\rho > 0##), there exists a finite time ##t*## in the past where the scale factor ##a(t*)=0##. The equation used is ##(\frac{\dot{a}}{a})^2=\frac{8\pi G}{3}\rho-\frac{k}{a^2}##, which simplifies to ##\dot{a}^2=1+\frac{8\pi G}{3}a^2\rho##. The conclusion drawn is that if ##\dot{a} > 0##, then ##a(t)## must decrease as time moves backward, leading to the assertion that ##a(t*)=0## must occur at some finite time in the past.

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binbagsss
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Homework Statement



Use Friedmann equations to show that if ##\dot{a} > 0##, ##k<0## and ##\rho>0## then there exists a ##t*## in the past where ##a(t*)=0##

Homework Equations


[/B]
Friedmann :

##(\frac{\dot{a}}{a})^2=\frac{8\pi G}{3}\rho-\frac{k}{a^2}##

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
re-arrange as:

##\dot{a}^2=1+\frac{8\pi G}{3}a^2\rho##

where I have used ##k<0## can be/is standard to set to ##k=-1##

Then since ##\rho>0##, and ##\dot{a}##>0 implies I should take the positive square root of this , this implies that ##\dot{a}>1## for all time.

Now I do not follow the next part of my solution which says:

Thus ##a(t)>0## is decreasing at a rate that is always greater than ##1## and there was necessarily a finite time ##t*## in the past where ##a(t*)=0##

How have we concluded a decrease, do we not need ##\ddot{a}## to make this conclusion? Can someone please explain where this comes from?

Many thanks in advance
 
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I don't think you can just set k=-1, although it doesn't change the conclusion here. It is not necessary to do that, all you need is k<0 in the following argument.

If the first derivative is positive, then the original function decreases if we go back in time. This does not depend on the second derivative.
 
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