Function Injectivity Subjectivity Proof

  • Thread starter Thread starter Austin Chang
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Function Proof
Click For Summary
The discussion centers on proving the injectivity of function f given that the composition g°f is injective. The original proof attempt incorrectly assumes relationships between elements from different sets and complicates the logic unnecessarily. The teacher advises following a simpler template: assume f(a) = f(a') and show that this implies a = a'. The key point is that the injectivity of g°f directly leads to the conclusion about f without needing to explore the injectivity of g. Clarity and adherence to the proof structure are essential for a successful argument.
Austin Chang
Messages
38
Reaction score
0
1. Homework Statement
Proof Let F:A→B and g: B→C be functions. Suppose that g°f is injective. Prove that f is injective.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Let x,y ∈ A, and suppose g°f (x) = g°f(y) and x = y. Suppose g: B→C was not injective. then f(g(x)), if g(x) is some element within B, will be at least two numbers which would no longer make equation injective. If g:B→C was injective then f(c) = f(c') iff c = c'. Suppose f:A→B is not injective. Therefore if f(a') = f(a), a' = a does not need to be equal.
Therefore g°f will no longer be injective because a certain element within A can equal to multiple elements within C. Therefore F: A→B must be injective.Tell me why my reasoning does not hold. My teacher sent me this reply. I don't know why my logic doesn't work.

"This is *way* too complicated. So much so, that it's not worth me checking whether your reasoning
holds in the end (although, I did notice some problems with that, too.) Follow the template! To show f is injective, let a, a' be in A and suppose f(a) = f(a'). Your job is to use the hypotheses to show that a = a'. It should not take more than a few short sentences."
 

Attachments

  • image1.JPG
    image1.JPG
    55.9 KB · Views: 540
Physics news on Phys.org
Austin Chang said:
1. Homework Statement
Proof Let F:A→B and g: B→C be functions. Suppose that g°f is injective. Prove that f is injective.

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


Let x,y ∈ A, and suppose g°f (x) = g°f(y) and x = y. Suppose g: B→C was not injective. then f(g(x)), if g(x) is some element within B, will be at least two numbers which would no longer make equation injective. If g:B→C was injective then f(c) = f(c') iff c = c'. Suppose f:A→B is not injective. Therefore if f(a') = f(a), a' = a does not need to be equal.
Therefore g°f will no longer be injective because a certain element within A can equal to multiple elements within C. Therefore F: A→B must be injective.

Tell me why my reasoning does not hold. My teacher sent me this reply. I don't know why my logic doesn't work.

"This is *way* too complicated. So much so, that it's not worth me checking whether your reasoning
holds in the end (although, I did notice some problems with that, too.) Follow the template! To show f is injective, let a, a' be in A and suppose f(a) = f(a'). Your job is to use the hypotheses to show that a = a'. It should not take more than a few short sentences."​
Please give us the template that your teacher requested you to follow.

Your proof as it stands has many problems. It looks a little different than the hand written version you posted in an image, but that image is rather difficult to read. Both versions have problems.
 
SammyS said:
Please give us the template that your teacher requested you to follow.

Your proof as it stands has many problems. It looks a little different than the hand written version you posted in an image, but that image is rather difficult to read. Both versions have problems.
Theorem 6 The function f : A → B is injective. Proof. Let x, y ∈ A, and suppose that f(x) = f(y). Then blah, blah, blah. It follows that x = y. Hence, f is injective.
Thanks
 
Austin Chang said:
Theorem 6 The function f : A → B is injective. Proof. Let x, y ∈ A, and suppose that f(x) = f(y). Then blah, blah, blah. It follows that x = y. Hence, f is injective.
Thanks
Interesting template.

Here's one example of a difficulty with your proof. You state:
Suppose g: B→C ... if g(x) is some element within B ...​

For g: B→C, g(x) implies that x ∈ B and g(x) ∈ C . g(x) in general may not be anything like any of the elements found in set C.
 
SammyS said:
Interesting template.

Here's one example of a difficulty with your proof. You state:
Suppose g: B→C ... if g(x) is some element within B ...​

For g: B→C, g(x) implies that x ∈ B and g(x) ∈ C . g(x) in general may not be anything like any of the elements found in set C.
So what would u say I should do? Do I just follow the format or do I just try to be more careful with what I say?
 
Austin Chang said:
So what would u say I should do? Do I just follow the format or do I just try to be more careful with what I say?

Just follow the template. Injectivity is the fun part of these proofs.

Take ##a, a' \in A##. Suppose ##f(a) = f(a')##. Now try to deduce that ##a = a'##. It really is a few sentences to write down as your teacher said.

Surjectivity is often a lot harder. Do you need to show something about surjectivity too (it's in the title of the thread)?
 
Math_QED said:
Surjectivity is often a lot harder. Do you need to show something about surjectivity too (it's in the title of the thread)?
Actually the title mentions subjectivity, not surjectivity .
 
Last edited:
@Austin Chang ,
In the OP, you inquired about shortcomings in you reasoning/logic.

You begin with:
Let x,y ∈ A, and suppose g°f (x) = g°f(y) and x = y.​
The first part of that statement OK logically. But the fact is that you are given that (g°f) is injective. This implies that x = y. This is not much use in showing that f injective.

Now if you join the first part of the statement with the part in red, you are assuming that x = y. If x = y then you have g°f (x) = g°f(y) simply from the definition of (g°f) being a well-defined function. In this case, g°f (x) = g°f(y) doesn't depend upon (g°f) being injective at all.

The you state:
Suppose g: B→C was not injective.​
It turns out that g does not need to be injective for (g°f) to be injective. You simply need g to be a function.

Continuing:
... then f(g(x)), if g(x) is some element within B, will be at least two numbers which would no longer make equation injective.​
Now we have problem heaped upon problem.
A big problem here is that you take elements from the wrong sets as inputs to functions and then assign the outputs (the images) to the wrong sets.
g(x) would be in set C, if x were in set B, but you already assigned x as being from set A. If g is a function, the g(b) never has two different outcomes. You also mention f(g(x)). For this to make sense, x needs to be in B, which then puts g(x) in C, but to use this in function f, you would need g(x) to be in A and the f(g(x)) would be in B. By the way, there is no need to consider f(g( )) at all, even if it existed. Finally, some terminology: An equation is not a function and thus is never injective.No need to go on, is there ?
 

Similar threads

Replies
4
Views
4K
Replies
10
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K