Function that is an isomorphism

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of isomorphisms in the context of finite dimensional vector spaces, specifically examining a transformation defined on polynomial spaces. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the relationship between the dimensions of vector spaces and the existence of isomorphisms.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to reconcile the theorem stating that an isomorphism exists if the dimensions of two vector spaces are equal with their specific example of a transformation that is not an isomorphism. Other participants clarify that the theorem does not imply that any arbitrary transformation is an isomorphism.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging in clarifying the distinction between the existence of an isomorphism and the properties of a specific transformation. Some guidance has been provided regarding the interpretation of the theorem and the nature of the transformation in question.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the importance of understanding the conditions under which a transformation can be classified as an isomorphism, particularly in relation to kernel and image properties.

NATURE.M
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Homework Statement



So my text states the proposition:
If V and W are finite dimensional vector spaces, then there is an isomorphism T:V→W ⇔ dim(V)=dim(W).

So, in an example the text give the transformation T:P_{3}(R)→P_{3}(R)
defined by T(p(x)) = x dp(x)/dx.

Now I understand T is not an isomorphism since ker(T) = span(1) , the set of all constant polynomial functions. But by the above theorem since the dim(V) = dim(W), T would an isomorphism.
So I'm a bit confused.
 
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The theorem says that there is some function that is an isomorphism. It does not say that any function ##T## is an isomorphism.

In your example, the theorem is satisfied since ##S(x) = x## is an isomorphism. But the theorem does not say that any arbitrary ##T## is an isomorphism. So you can not deduce that your ##T## is an isomorphism from the theorem.
 
NATURE.M said:

Homework Statement



So my text states the proposition:
If V and W are finite dimensional vector spaces, then there is an isomorphism T:V→W ⇔ dim(V)=dim(W).

So, in an example the text give the transformation T:P_{3}(R)→P_{3}(R)
defined by T(p(x)) = x dp(x)/dx.

Now I understand T is not an isomorphism since ker(T) = span(1) , the set of all constant polynomial functions. But by the above theorem since the dim(V) = dim(W), T would an isomorphism.
So I'm a bit confused.

No. The theorem says that if dim(V) = dim(W) then there is an isomorphism. It doesn't say any old map you choose is an isomorphism. Your map isn't onto.
 
Ok thanks a lot. Its makes sense now.
 

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