If [tex]X[/tex] is Banach space and [tex]F:X \rightarrow X[/tex] is a linear and bounded map and that [tex]F^n(x)\rightarrow0[/tex] pointwise .. How can I show that it converges to zero uniformly also?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks

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# Functional analysis convergence question

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