Functional analysis convergence question

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The discussion centers on the convergence of a sequence defined by a linear and bounded map F in a Banach space X. It is established that if F^n(x) converges to 0 pointwise, one must demonstrate that this convergence is also uniform. The reference to the Wikipedia article on bounded operators highlights the importance of understanding the equivalence of boundedness and continuity in this context.

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If [tex]X[/tex] is Banach space and [tex]F:X \rightarrow X[/tex] is a linear and bounded map and that [tex]F^n(x)\rightarrow0[/tex] pointwise .. How can I show that it converges to zero uniformly also?

Thanks
 
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http: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bounded_operator#Equivalence_of_boundedness_and_continuity
 

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