Functions, Mappings and Intervals.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem in mathematical analysis concerning functions, specifically the properties of a continuous function f mapping the interval [a, b] onto itself. The original poster is attempting to prove certain inequalities and properties related to the function's behavior within the specified interval.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to prove that for all x in [a, b], the function satisfies f(a) ≤ f(x) ≤ f(b) and is considering the application of the Mean Value Theorem. Some participants question the assumptions regarding the function being onto [a, b] and the implications of the derivative condition df/dx < 1.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring the implications of the assumptions and the original poster seeking clarification on how to demonstrate the mapping properties of the function. There is a recognition of the need to establish that no point in [a, b] maps outside of this interval.

Contextual Notes

There are assumptions in place regarding the continuity of the function and its behavior at the endpoints of the interval. The original poster has indicated a willingness to provide proofs for certain claims if needed, but there is a lack of consensus on the assumptions and their implications for the proof.

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Homework Statement


This is a problem I am just trying to do myself to work out some other problem.

I am trying to prove: f:[a, b] → [a, b]
Given: f is continuous on [a, b], for all x in [a, b] then df/dx < 1 , f(a) ≥ a , f(b) ≤ b.

2. The attempt at a solution

First I proved that f(b) - f(a) ≤ b - a. It is simple, but I can give the proof if you wish.
Now I need to prove that for all x in [a, b] , f(a) ≤ f(x) ≤ f(b), but I have no clue how to do this. I thought of using the Mean Value Theorem somehow, but I don't quite know how. I also thought of showing that f(x) ≤ f(x + dx) for x in [a, b], but I don't know how to do that either. Any help ?
 
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[itex]f(a)\ge a[/itex] and [itex]f(b)\le b[/itex] are easy. You are told that f(a) and f(b) are in [a, b]!

Are you assuming that f is onto [a, b]? Otherwise, neither [itex]f(a)\le f(x)\le f(b)[/itex] not df/dx< 1 is true for all x in [a, b]. Take, for example, a= -1, b= 1, f(x)=x. f(a)= f(b)= 1, but f(x) is less than 1 for all other x. Also df/dx> 1 for x> 1/2.
 
HallsofIvy said:
[itex]f(a)\ge a[/itex] and [itex]f(b)\le b[/itex] are easy. You are told that f(a) and f(b) are in [a, b]!

I do not need to prove that, that is one of the assumptions.

I want to prove that f maps from the interval [a,b] onto [a,b].

The assumptions are:
1) f is continuous on [a, b]
2) for all x in [a, b] then df/dx < 1 ,
3) f(a) ≥ a , f(b) ≤ b.


What I have shown:
f(b) - f(a) ≤ b - a

Now to prove that f maps from [a,b] to [a,b], then I also need to show that for all x in [a,b] it is true that f(a) ≤ f(x) ≤ f(b), that is, no point in the interval [a,b] can be mapped to a point outside the interval [a,b]. How do I do this?
 
Anyone :(
 

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