Daaavde
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From the Greiner (Thermodynamics and statistical mechanics) on the relationship between the number of microstates of two systems and the total entropy:
...for two statistically independent systems the total number of compatible microstates \Omega_{tot} is obviously the product of the numbers for the individual systems, namely \Omega_{tot} = \Omega_1 \Omega_2. We have seen the entropy is an extensive quantity which is simply added for both partial systems: S_{tot} = S_1 + S_2.
If we now assume that there is a one-to-one correspondence between entropy and \Omega, for instance S = f(\Omega), there is only one mathematical function which simultaneously fulfills S_{tot} = S_1 + S_2 and \Omega_{tot} = \Omega_1 \Omega_2: the logarithm. Therefore it must hold that S \propto ln \Omega...
Now, in this case, the one-to-one correspondence between S and \Omega is not obvious to me at all. I was searching for a demonstration, or at least some more convincing justification, but i found nothing.
Can anyone help me with this?
...for two statistically independent systems the total number of compatible microstates \Omega_{tot} is obviously the product of the numbers for the individual systems, namely \Omega_{tot} = \Omega_1 \Omega_2. We have seen the entropy is an extensive quantity which is simply added for both partial systems: S_{tot} = S_1 + S_2.
If we now assume that there is a one-to-one correspondence between entropy and \Omega, for instance S = f(\Omega), there is only one mathematical function which simultaneously fulfills S_{tot} = S_1 + S_2 and \Omega_{tot} = \Omega_1 \Omega_2: the logarithm. Therefore it must hold that S \propto ln \Omega...
Now, in this case, the one-to-one correspondence between S and \Omega is not obvious to me at all. I was searching for a demonstration, or at least some more convincing justification, but i found nothing.
Can anyone help me with this?