Generalizing the Theorem: Number of Solutions to x^k ≡ 1 (mod n)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the equation x^k ≡ 1 (mod n) and its solutions, specifically exploring the conditions under which there are exactly k solutions. The original poster attempts to prove that if k divides the Euler's totient function φ(n), then there are k solutions to the equation.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the polynomial x^k - 1 and its degree, as well as the relationship between k and φ(n). There is an attempt to connect the problem to known theorems like Euler's theorem and Fermat's little theorem. Some participants question the validity of the generalization proposed by the original poster.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants expressing uncertainty about the proof's direction. A counterexample has been introduced, which raises questions about the general statement being discussed. Clarifications about the nature of p being prime have also been made.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of a counterexample where x^2 ≡ 1 (mod 8) has 4 solutions, despite 2 dividing 4, which challenges the original poster's hypothesis. The discussion also reflects on the assumptions regarding the primality of p.

Arian.D
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Homework Statement


Prove that the equation x^k \equiv 1 (mod p) has exactly k solutions if k|p-1.

I'm also curious to know if it's possible to generalize this theorem this way:
Prove that the equation x^k \equiv 1 (mod n) has exactly k solutions if k|\varphi(n) where \varphi(n) indicates the Euler's totient function.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


Well, this is what I've done so far, but at some point I couldn't progressed any futher:

Consider the polynomial xk-1. By a theorem we know that this polynomial would have k solutions at the maximum because its degree is k. Now, since k|p-1, there exists an integer number t such that: kt=p-1. we'll have:

x^{p-1} - 1 = x^{kt} -1 = (x^k - 1)(x^{k(t-1)} + x^{k(t-2)} + ... + x^k + 1)

well, since p is a prime number, by Euler's theorem (or Fermat's little theorem to be more precise) we know that x^{p-1} - 1 \equiv 0 (mod p) would have exactly p-1 solutions (since all the numbers from 1 to p-1 would be prime relative to p).

now we'll have:

x^{p-1} - 1 \equiv 0 (mod p)
x^{kt} -1 = (x^k - 1)(x^{k(t-1)} + x^{k(t-2)} + ... + x^k + 1) \equiv 0 (mod p)
p | (x^k - 1)(x^{k(t-1)} + x^{k(t-2)} + ... + x^k + 1)
since p is prime, p divides x^k -1 or x^{k(t-1)} + x^{k(t-2)} + ... + x^k + 1, therefore:

x^k - 1 \equiv 0 (mod p)
x^{k(t-1)} + x^{k(t-2)} + ... + x^k + 1 \equiv 0 (mod p)

Now this is where I'm stuck. I don't know how to go further. I'm not sure if what I've done is useful to conclude anything either.
Any helps would be appreciated.
 
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By the way, I found a counter example to that general statement.
x2=1 (mod 8) has 4 solutions even though that 2 divides 4.
 
I think p is prime in this question.
 
Yes, it is.
I'm sorry if having not said that caused confusion because I thought that was obvious from my solution to the problem.
 
No ones knows how to prove it?
 

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