GF(q); x^p-x+a has no root => irreducible [PROOF]

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SUMMARY

The polynomial f(x) = x^p - x + a is irreducible over the finite field GF(q) if and only if it has no roots in GF(q). This conclusion is established by demonstrating that if f is irreducible, it cannot have roots, as having a root implies a linear factorization. Conversely, if f has no roots, it must be irreducible, as any reducible polynomial would necessarily possess at least one root in GF(q). The discussion highlights the importance of understanding the characteristics of finite fields and the implications of polynomial factorization.

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Homework Statement



Let q=p^e, where p is a prime and e is a positive integer. Let a be in GF(q). Show that f(x)=x^p-x+a is irreducible over GF(q) if and only if f(x) has no root in GF(q)

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The Attempt at a Solution



One of the directions seems obvious. Namely, if f is irreducible, the f has no roots: if f had a root, say b in GF(q), then f(x)=(x-b)*g(x), where g is a poly with coefficients from GF(q).

The other direction: if f has no root, then f is irreducible. Or equivalently, f is reducible, then f has a root in GF(q). Frankly, I don't have any ideas. The only "observation" I made is that if the power of f were q rather than p and it had a root, say b, then b+1, b+2,...,b+p-1 would be roots, too. I think the key point here is that I need to "guess" what the linear factorization of f in its splitting field looks like.
 
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UD1 said:
The only "observation" I made is that if the power of f were q rather than p and it had a root, say b, then b+1, b+2,...,b+p-1 would be roots, too.
I could understand this if you were adding arbitrary elements of GF(q) -- but since you're just adding elements of GF(p), I don't understand why you are insisting on q instead of p.
 
Hurkyl said:
I could understand this if you were adding arbitrary elements of GF(q) -- but since you're just adding elements of GF(p), I don't understand why you are insisting on q instead of p.

OK. It looks that there is some notation misunderstanding. I'm not that well familiar with finite fields so I might have used the type of notation not usually used.

By GF(q) I mean a finite field of order q (with q elements) where q is a power of prime p, and that p is a characteristic of the field.
 
Right, that's what I thought you meant. The numbers you're adding to b: 0,1,2,...,p-1, are all elements of GF(p).
 
Hurkyl said:
Right, that's what I thought you meant. The numbers you're adding to b: 0,1,2,...,p-1, are all elements of GF(p).


So, how does that help?
 
Well, if I'm right, then your observation applies. Surely that's better than your observation not applying?
 
Hurkyl said:
Well, if I'm right, then your observation applies. Surely that's better than your observation not applying?

So, we know that, assuming that b is a root in some extension of F, then

f(x)=\prod_{j=0}^{p-1}(x-(b+j)).

Now suppose that f is reducible, that is f=gh for some polynomials g and h whose coefficients are in GF(q). There must exists a proper subset I of {0,...,p-1} such that

g(x)=\prod_{j\in I}(x-(b+j)).

How does it follow that f has a root in F. Namely, that b is in F?
 

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