Going from polar coor. to cartesian coor.

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The discussion focuses on converting polar coordinates back to Cartesian coordinates, specifically addressing the challenge of determining the correct angle when both coordinates are negative. It is established that when both a and b are negative, the point lies in the third quadrant, necessitating the addition of π to the angle derived from atan(b/a) to obtain the correct θ. The use of the atan2 function is recommended, as it accounts for the quadrant and avoids issues like division by zero. The conversation clarifies that while atan is typically limited to a range of (-π/2, π/2), atan2 provides a broader range of (-π, π), ensuring a unique angle for each point. This approach simplifies the conversion process and enhances accuracy in coordinate transformations.
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Hello, I recently run into a problem. Let's say I have the point (a,b) and (-a,-b). The, I know that θ_1 = atan(b/a) and θ_2 = atan((-b)/(-a)) = θ_1.

But, what if I want to go back to Cartesian coordinates? If I assume r = 1,
a = cos(θ_1) and b = sin(θ_1) while
-a = cos(θ_2) and b = sin(θ_2).

I am sure this is very simple and it has to do with the fact that the range of atan is (-π/2,π/2). But is there a way of getting back the -a? Could I just add π to the angle whenever a and b are negatives?
 
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Atan is multivalued, so you need to use more information to get the angle.
 
Marioqwe said:
Hello, I recently run into a problem. Let's say I have the point (a,b) and (-a,-b). The, I know that θ_1 = atan(b/a) and θ_2 = atan((-b)/(-a)) = θ_1.

But, what if I want to go back to Cartesian coordinates? If I assume r = 1,
a = cos(θ_1) and b = sin(θ_1) while
-a = cos(θ_2) and b = sin(θ_2).

I am sure this is very simple and it has to do with the fact that the range of atan is (-π/2,π/2). But is there a way of getting back the -a? Could I just add π to the angle whenever a and b are negatives?

In a word, yes. If a and b are both negative, then the point is in the third quadrant and you would need to add ∏ to atan(b/a) to derive θ_2. [Alternately you could decide to use a non-canonical polar representation with a negative value for r].

And yes, ignoring your sign omission, -a = cos(θ_2) and -b = sin(θ_2).

Some math libraries have a two-argument "atan2" function that figures the quadrants out for you so that the range of the atan2 is the full -∏ (exclusive) to +∏ (inclusive). This function also avoids the divide by zero problem for points on the y axis.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atan2
 
I can certainly use atan2. Thank you.
 
Matt Benesi said:
atan isn't multivalued- usually the format is: atan(y/x);

atan2 is multivalued... (wikipedia link to definition of atan2 in terms of extension of atan function)

Multivalued means there is more than one value for the given argument. Atan, like asin and acos are multivalued. Atan2 is also multivalued, but as long as you stay within an interval of 2π you will get a unique answer. For atan the interval is π, so you need to know the sign of y or x to get the right value.
 
Good morning I have been refreshing my memory about Leibniz differentiation of integrals and found some useful videos from digital-university.org on YouTube. Although the audio quality is poor and the speaker proceeds a bit slowly, the explanations and processes are clear. However, it seems that one video in the Leibniz rule series is missing. While the videos are still present on YouTube, the referring website no longer exists but is preserved on the internet archive...

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