Goldstein Derivation 1.6: Nonholonomic Constraints in Particle Motion

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the nonholonomic nature of constraints in particle motion, specifically when a particle's velocity vector is directed towards a point on the x-axis defined by a differentiable function f(t). The derived differential equation, ydx + [f(t)-x]dy = 0, indicates that the constraint is nonholonomic, as the integral cannot be performed generally due to the arbitrary nature of f(t). Participants emphasize the importance of treating t as an implicit function of x and y, which affects the integrability of the expression.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of nonholonomic constraints in classical mechanics
  • Familiarity with differential equations and their solutions
  • Knowledge of calculus, specifically integration techniques
  • Basic concepts of particle motion in the xy-plane
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the implications of nonholonomic constraints in Lagrangian mechanics
  • Learn about the properties of differentiable functions and their applications in physics
  • Explore advanced integration techniques for differential equations
  • Investigate the role of implicit functions in multivariable calculus
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This discussion is beneficial for physicists, mathematicians, and students studying classical mechanics, particularly those interested in the dynamics of systems with nonholonomic constraints.

DrHouse
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1. The problem statement

A particle moves in the ##xy## plane under the constraint that its velocity vector is always directed towards a point on the ##x## axis whose abscissa is some given function of time ##f(t)##. Show that for ##f(t)## differentiable but otherwise arbitrary, the constraint is NONHOLONOMIC.

2. The attempt at a solution
I have got the differential equation relating the generalised coordinates (in this case they are ##x## and ##y## since the system has two degrees of freedom):

## ydx + [f(t)-x]dy = 0 ##

If the constraint equation is nonholonomic, then the previous integral can not be performed but it's true that it can be written as

## \displaystyle \int \frac{dx}{x-f(t)} = \int \frac{dy}{y}##


which, I think is an integrable expression in terms of logarithmic functions for any ##f(t)##. Some people say that the previous integral can not be performed in general due to the arbitrariness of ##f(t)##. Can anyone explain me why?
 
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Are you forgetting that t must be considered as an implicit function of x and y in your differential expression? That is, f(t) cannot be considered as independent of x and y.
 

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