Why Is the Normal Vector of a Tangent Plane Equal to the Gradient?

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The normal vector of a tangent plane to a surface defined by f(x) = 0 is equal to the gradient vector, ∇f|_{x0}, because it is orthogonal to all tangent vectors at that point. This relationship is established through the differentiation of a curve on the surface, which leads to the equation ∇F·r'(t) = 0, indicating that the tangent vector r'(t) is perpendicular to the level surface. The proof demonstrates that the gradient vector represents the direction of steepest ascent and is thus normal to the surface at any given point. Understanding this relationship is crucial in fields such as differential geometry and vector calculus. The equality of the normal vector and the gradient is fundamental in analyzing surfaces and their properties.
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For a tangent plane to a surface, why is the normal vector for this plane equal to the gradient vector? Or is it not?
 
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You have to be a bit more precise: if a surface is defined by

f(\mathbf{x})=0

then

\nabla f\big|_{\mathbf{x}_0}

is a vector tangent to the surface at point x0. This is because it is orthogonal to the velocities of all possible curves that pass through x0:

0=df=\nabla f\cdot\mathbf{v}
 
Hi, there is a quick proof of this.
Suppose a surface:
F(x,y,z)=Costant

and a point:
P(x0,y0,z0) \in surface.

Let C be a curve on the surface passing through P. This curve can be described by a vector function:
r(t)=(x(t),y(t),z(t))

let:
r(t0)=(x0,y0,z0)

C lies on the surface this implies that:
F(r(t))=Costant

differentiating (if F and r are differentiable) we have:
(∂F/∂x)(dx/dt)+(∂F/∂y)(dy/dt)+(∂F/∂z)(dz/dt)=0

∇F·r'(t)=0
\Rightarrow The vector r'(t) (tangent to the surface) is perpendicular to the levele surface.
 
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There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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