Undergrad Is the Gradient of Dirac Delta Independent of the Coordinate System?

Click For Summary
The discussion centers on whether the gradient of the Dirac delta function is independent of the coordinate system. It is clarified that the relationship between the gradients with respect to different coordinates involves a negative sign, specifically that the gradient of the delta function with respect to one variable is the negative of the gradient with respect to the other. The participants emphasize the importance of understanding the delta function as a distribution acting on test functions, leading to integration results that confirm the negative gradient relationship. A correction is made regarding a typo in the equations presented. The conversation concludes with a clear understanding of the gradient relationship for the Dirac delta function.
IanBerkman
Messages
52
Reaction score
1
Dear all,

I have a quick question, is the following statement true?
$$\nabla_\textbf{x'} \delta(\textbf{x}-\textbf{x'}) = \nabla_\textbf{x} \delta(\textbf{x}-\textbf{x'})?$$

I thought I have seen this somewhere before, but I could not remember where and why.
I know the identity ##d/dx \delta(x) = \delta(x)/x## but I do not see how to implement this into the above equation.

Thanks in advance,

Ian
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I suggest you think about the more general question when you replace the delta by an arbitrary function of a vector, i.e., how is the gradient of f(x-x') wrt x related to its derivative wrt x'?
 
BvU said:
I'm missing the minus signs...

Orodruin said:
I suggest you think about the more general question when you replace the delta by an arbitrary function of a vector, i.e., how is the gradient of f(x-x') wrt x related to its derivative wrt x'?

.For a general function the answer is ##\nabla'f(x-x')=-\nabla f(x-x')##. I was too distracted with the delta function itself, this also explains the minus sign
 
To check, what's right, you need to remember the meaning of the ##\delta## distribution. It's a functional acting on an appropriate set of test functions (e.g., the smooth functions with compact support, ##C_0^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}^3)##. Then you have by definition [corrected due to #7 and #8]
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \mathrm{d}^3 \vec{x}' \vec{\nabla}_x \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}-\vec{x}') f(\vec{x}')=\vec{\nabla}_x \int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \mathrm{d}^3 \vec{x}' \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}-\vec{x}') f(\vec{x}')=\vec{\nabla}_x f(\vec{x}).$$
On the other hand, via integration by parts,
$$\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \mathrm{d}^3 \vec{x}' \vec{\nabla}_{x'} \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}-\vec{x}') f(\vec{x}')=-\int_{\mathbb{R}^3} \mathrm{d}^3 \vec{x}' \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}-\vec{x}') \vec{\nabla}_{x'} f(\vec{x}')=-\vec{\nabla}_{x} f(\vec{x}).$$
Thus comparing the two formulae tells you
$$\vec{\nabla}_x \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}-\vec{x}')=-\vec{\nabla}_{x'} \delta^{(3)}(\vec{x}-\vec{x}').$$
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes IanBerkman
It is clear now, thank you.
 
Groleix said:
dear vahnees71, i don't understant the first equation you write. on LHS you write f(x-x'), while on RHS you write f(x') under the integrand, why so ? How can we manage to put the gradient out of the integral without involving integration by parts ?
Thank you !
Both cases should be f(x').
 
  • Like
Likes vanhees71 and Groleix
Orodruin said:
Both cases should be f(x').
Of course, it's a stupid typo. I'll correct it right now.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
7K
  • · Replies 53 ·
2
Replies
53
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
555
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
Replies
3
Views
5K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
4K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
1K