Gravity as a particle-based force vs space-time warping

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The discussion centers on reconciling two interpretations of gravity: as a particle-based force involving gravitons and as a warping of space-time according to General Relativity. Participants explore the implications of gravitational waves, noting that while they are predicted by both theories, direct evidence remains limited, with indirect evidence observed in pulsar behaviors. A key point raised is the constraint of the speed of light on gravitational effects, questioning why this limit applies to space-time warping when it is fundamentally a movement of space-time itself. The conversation also touches on the nature of gravitons as fluctuations in the curvature of space-time, suggesting that they contribute to a coherent state that defines gravity. Ultimately, the discussion highlights the complexities in understanding gravity's nature and the implications for theoretical physics.
Cobalt101
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I'm interested to understand the interpretation of gravity as a result of exchange of force particles (ie gravitons) vs General Relativity-based warping of space-time. Related to this is while a constraint to speed of cause and effect would apply to the graviton-based concept, why should this limit apply to space-time warping ? Re this latter point, I understand that while gravitational waves have been postulated there is yet no evidence of them (in fact recent 2014 findings appear now to have been caused by interstellar dust. So I think my question can be distilled down to how can the theories of gravity as a particle-based force vs a space-time warp be reconciled, and what are the key implications of this ?
 
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Cobalt101 said:
why should this limit apply to space-time warping ?
In the same way it applies to all fields - there is nothing that transmits changes of the field faster than the speed of light.
Cobalt101 said:
Re this latter point, I understand that while gravitational waves have been postulated there is yet no evidence of them
There is indirect evidence - not from BICEP2, but from observations of orbiting pulsars where they lose energy well in agreement with the predicted emission of gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves appear in both approaches, in the same way as light can be described with classical electromagnetic fields or quantized (where the concept of photons appears).
 
Gravitational waves have not been postulated any more than EM waves were. Rather they were, like EM waves, predicted as the result of the theory. As the theory in question is both highly consistent and otherwise very successful, this gives them quite another level of plausibility than a mere postulate. I don't think many physicists were surprised when the pulsar result matched the predictions.
 
Cobalt101 said:
I'm interested to understand the interpretation of gravity as a result of exchange of force particles (ie gravitons) vs General Relativity-based warping of space-time. Related to this is while a constraint to speed of cause and effect would apply to the graviton-based concept, why should this limit apply to space-time warping ? Re this latter point, I understand that while gravitational waves have been postulated there is yet no evidence of them (in fact recent 2014 findings appear now to have been caused by interstellar dust. So I think my question can be distilled down to how can the theories of gravity as a particle-based force vs a space-time warp be reconciled, and what are the key implications of this ?

You should read this:

http://physics.aps.org/synopsis-for/10.1103/PhysRevLett.114.061301

Zz.
 
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mfb said:
In the same way it applies to all fields - there is nothing that transmits changes of the field faster than the speed of light.
There is indirect evidence - not from BICEP2, but from observations of orbiting pulsars where they lose energy well in agreement with the predicted emission of gravitational waves.
Gravitational waves appear in both approaches, in the same way as light can be described with classical electromagnetic fields or quantized (where the concept of photons appears).
My question why the limit would not apply to the gravitational (as opposed to eg electromagnetic) field theory (as opposed to graviton particle force theory) is due to the former being a movement of space-time itself, which is not limited by c. (This concept as I understand has been explored/utilised in the Alcubierre metric). So if one views graviity as a bending/movement of space-time itself why is the speed of impact of gravity constrained by c ?
 
Cobalt101 said:
My question why the limit would not apply to the gravitational (as opposed to eg electromagnetic) field theory
But it would!
Cobalt101 said:
is due to the former being a movement of space-time itself, which is not limited by c
Distance changes between distant objects are not limited by c, but all local processes are.
 
@Cobalt101

Graviton is a quantum/fluctuation of the curvature of spacetime, a ripple ON TOP of the spacetime. However the background spacetime curvature itself results from a condensate or coherent state of a enormous number of gravitons, not few isolated ripples...this coherent state is so tightly correlated that individual graviton loses its identity and is part of something enormous, i.e. curved spacetime. I hope the distinction is clear. It is the difference between classicl EM field between plates of a parallel plate capacitor and isolated photons. Recall bosons have the tendency to gather together into a phase coherent lump in which the individual boson loses its identity and the lump as whole is a single macroscopic entity, called a condensate.
 

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