Great Fun: Complex Proof using de Moivre's Theorem

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The discussion focuses on solving the integral of cos^2n(theta) using de Moivre's theorem, specifically proving that ∫_{0}^{π} cos^{2n}θ dθ = (2n)!π / (2^{2n}(n!)^2). The initial approach involved expressing cos^2n(theta) in terms of complex exponentials but encountered difficulties with integration. A suggestion was made to consider the even nature of the cosine function, which simplifies the integral over a symmetric interval. The final solution involved expanding the expression and integrating, leading to a straightforward result after recognizing that many terms cancel out. The participants noted that problems often seem simpler in hindsight, emphasizing the learning process involved.
benjyk
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Homework Statement


Show that
\int_{0}^{\pi} {\cos}^{2n}\theta d\theta = \frac{(2n)!\pi}{{2}^{2n}{(n!)}^{2}}

Homework Equations



cos n*theta = (z^n + z^-n)/2

The Attempt at a Solution



Ok, this one has kept me busy for a while. I started using de Moivre's theorem to express cos^2n(theta) in terms of multiple angles but got stuck on the integral.
After a while I tried to prove it inductively; showing it true for n=1 but then failed to show it for n=k+1.
If someone could suggest a novel way to start this problem I would be very grateful.

Benjy
 
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1) First notice that the cosine is an even function, so if you integrate over -pi to +pi, the answer is double what you want.

2) cos theta = (z + z^-1)/2, z=e^(i theta)

3) What is the integral from -pi to +pi of z^n where n is an integer (possibly negative or zero)?
 
Thanks for your reply Avodyne.

To solve it, I expressed cos^2n(theta) as (z + z^-1)^2n. This expanded to yield:
(cos(2n) + 2nC1*cos(2n-2) + ... + (2n)!/(n1)^2) / 2^2n

When integrated, all the cos's become sin's. The sine of zero or any integer multiple of 2pi will cancell, therefore the only term remaining will be (2n)!/(n1)^2) / 2^2n.

Retrospectively it seems rather easy, although it did keep me busy for a while.
 
You could also notice that \int_{-\pi}^{+\pi} e^{in\theta} d\theta is zero unless n=0, in which case it is 2pi. This skips the step of assembling the z's into cosines.

Problems are always easier in retrospect ...
 
Yes they do :)
Thanks again for the help.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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