How Do You Solve a Complex Integral Using Cauchy-Goursat's Theorem?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the complex integral ##\int_{0}^{2\pi} \cos^2\left(\frac{\pi}{6}+2e^{i\theta}\right)d\theta## using Cauchy-Goursat's Theorem. Participants explore the implications of changing variables in integrals and the conditions under which the theorem can be applied.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to correctly change variables in the integral, noting that ##d\theta## and ##dz## are not equivalent. There are attempts to clarify the implications of using the Jacobian determinant when making substitutions. Some participants suggest different substitutions and question the validity of the original approach.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights and questioning each other's reasoning. There is recognition of the need to consider singularities and the holomorphic nature of the integrand. Some participants express uncertainty about the next steps in the evaluation process.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention the importance of understanding the conditions for applying Cauchy's Integral Theorem, particularly regarding the presence of singularities within the contour of integration. There is also a note about the original poster's background in mathematics, which may affect their understanding of the concepts discussed.

  • #31
Orodruin said:
Yes, it is late here (4 am) and I am suffering from insomnia so not completely alert ...

Yes, you can apply the Cauchy integral formula with z0=0z0=0z_0 = 0. The more general theorem is the residue theorem.
Got it! Thank you, I think I can handle this from here. Sorry :sorry: if I am taking a while, I am multi-problem solving right now :nb). Exam is tomorrow.:eek:
 
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  • #32
Just to have closure. I'll put the entire solution here. By letting ##z=e^{i\theta}## and ##dz=ie^{i\theta}d\theta##. we have
\begin{align}
\frac{1}{ie^{i\theta}}\int_{c}\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2e^{i\theta})ie^{i\theta}d\theta = \frac{1}{i}\int_{c}\frac{\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2z)}{z}dz
\end{align}
Since ##\frac{\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2z)}{z}## is analytic everywhere except at the origin - which is encapsulated by the given contour/curve we are integrating on, then by the Cauchy Integral Formula, letting ##f(z)=\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2z)## so ##f(0)=3/4## we have
\begin{align}
\int_c\frac{f(z)}{z}dz=2\pi i\frac{3}{4}=\frac{3\pi i}{2}
\end{align}
 
  • #33
Terrell said:
Just to have closure. I'll put the entire solution here. By letting ##z=e^{i\theta}## and ##dz=ie^{i\theta}d\theta##. we have
\begin{align}
\frac{1}{ie^{i\theta}}\int_{c}\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2e^{i\theta})ie^{i\theta}d\theta = \frac{1}{i}\int_{c}\frac{\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2z)}{z}dz
\end{align}
Since ##\frac{\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2z)}{z}## is analytic everywhere except at the origin - which is encapsulated by the given contour/curve we are integrating on, then by the Cauchy Integral Formula, letting ##f(z)=\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{6}+2z)## so ##f(0)=3/4## we have
\begin{align}
\int_c\frac{f(z)}{z}dz=2\pi i\frac{3}{4}=\frac{3\pi i}{2}
\end{align}

Good, so you have used that "famous" integral I mentioned. Every single textbook about complex analysis will have lots of material using that integral formula, since it is possibly one of the most important formulas in the whole field. In applications it is used over and over again, roughly in the manner that you just now used it.
 
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