Harmonic series Ʃ1/n diverges but p-series Ʃ(1/n)^p diverges?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence and divergence of the harmonic series Ʃ(1/n) and the p-series Ʃ(1/n)^p for different values of p. Participants explore the reasons behind the divergence of the harmonic series and the convergence of the p-series when p > 1, including the use of the integral comparison test and the implications of logarithmic versus polynomial behavior.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses confusion about the divergence of the harmonic series and the convergence of the p-series for p > 1.
  • Another participant suggests considering the integral comparison test as a method to understand the behavior of these series.
  • A participant explains the improper integral approach, detailing how the integral diverges for p = 1 and converges for p > 1, using limits and polynomial behavior.
  • It is noted that p = 1 serves as a critical boundary, with historical context provided regarding its divergence and the convergence of series for p > 1.
  • A later reply emphasizes the importance of using proper mathematical notation, specifically LaTeX, for clarity in mathematical expressions.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the overall understanding of the concepts, as some express confusion while others provide explanations. The discussion includes multiple perspectives on the reasoning behind convergence and divergence.

Contextual Notes

Some participants rely on the integral comparison test without fully resolving the implications of the logarithmic versus polynomial results. There is also a mention of the importance of mathematical notation, which may affect clarity in communication.

Dimwitted_UniStudent
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TL;DR
Struggling with harmonic series
Maybe it's obvious why and I'm just dumb, but I hope you can help me understand this
-----------------------------+∞
I sorta get why the Ʃ(1/n) diverges to +∞
-------------------------------n=1
------------------+∞
But why the Ʃ(1/n)^p (p>1), converges?
------------------n=1
 
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Ok I think I get it. I consider the improper integral, if p is 1 I have ln(M) so the series diverges as the limit of M--> +∞ of the integer is ln(+∞)=+∞, if I have p > 1 I have the improper integral of 1/(x^p) or x^-p, so {[M^(1-p)]-1}/(1-p), for M--> +∞ I have a (+∞)^-k (as 1-p <0) so (zero -1)/(1-p) and It converges. For p<1 I have instead (+∞)^k (as 1-p >0) so (+∞-1)/(1-p) so it diverges, right?
 
##p=1## in ##s(p)=\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{1}{n^p}}## is a hard boundary. We have known since the 14th century (possibly for longer) that ##s(1)## diverges. However, as soon as we add a bit, say we consider ##s(1+\varepsilon)## for ##\varepsilon>0## then it converges.

As noted, the integral test points to the reason for it: ##\displaystyle{\int \dfrac{dx}{x}=\log|x|}## involves a logarithmic function but ##\displaystyle{\int \dfrac{dx}{x^{1+\varepsilon}}=-\dfrac{1}{\varepsilon x^\varepsilon}} ## is a polynomial in ##1/x .## That is, we change from a logarithmic result to a polynomial result. This is a fundamental difference in behavior and finally, the reason why ##s(1)## diverges and ##s(1+\varepsilon)## converges.
 
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Dimwitted_UniStudent said:
TL;DR Summary: Struggling with harmonic series

Maybe it's obvious why and I'm just dumb, but I hope you can help me understand this
-----------------------------+∞
I sorta get why the Ʃ(1/n) diverges to +∞
-------------------------------n=1
------------------+∞
But why the Ʃ(1/n)^p (p>1), converges?
------------------n=1
Please learn and use latex when entering math expressions. It took me a minute or two to realize those dash lines were part of your summation.

We have a tutorial for latex whose link is listed below in this post.
 
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