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In several textbooks of QM I have read that Lorentz invariance is manifest in Heisnberg picture. How can we deduce that?
The discussion clarifies that Lorentz invariance is manifest in the Heisenberg picture of quantum mechanics (QM) due to the treatment of operators and states. In this framework, operators are functions of both space and time, while states are independent of these variables, aligning with the principles of Lorentz invariance. Conversely, in the Schrödinger picture, operators depend on space and states depend on time, leading to a lack of manifest Lorentz invariance. This distinction is crucial for understanding the implications of different formulations of quantum theory.
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