Helmholtz Theorem: What It Is & How It Works

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    Helmholtz Theorem
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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Helmholtz Theorem, focusing on the mathematical expressions and integrals involved, particularly regarding vector fields and their properties. Participants are exploring the implications of certain integrals and the behavior of functions as variables approach infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to simplify integrals related to the theorem and questioning the validity of certain assumptions, such as the behavior of the integrand as the radius increases. There are discussions about the relationship between different coordinate systems and the implications of the theorem's assumptions.

Discussion Status

The conversation is active, with participants providing insights and raising questions about the mathematical details and assumptions underlying the theorem. There is no explicit consensus, but several lines of reasoning are being explored, particularly regarding the convergence of integrals and the behavior of the vector field.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note potential gaps in the original statement of the theorem, particularly regarding the decay rate of the vector field as distance increases, which has not been explicitly stated. This raises questions about the assumptions that are being made in the discussion.

golfingboy07
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Hi everyone!

This question has me a little stumped.
 

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Let's work on this together. On my side, I "simplified" the 2 original integrals to

[tex]=\frac{1}{4\pi}\int_V \frac{\nabla _s \cdot \vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R^2}\hat{R} \ d^3x_s - \frac{1}{4\pi}\int_V \frac{\nabla _s \times \vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R^2} \times \hat{R} \ d^3x_s[/tex]

Anyone else care to contribute?
 
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On the other hand, take just the first integral. Isn't it just 0?

[tex]\nabla_t \int_V \nabla_s \cdot \left( \frac{\vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R} \right) \ d^3x_s = \nabla_t \int_{\partial V} \left( \frac{\vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R} \right)\ \cdot \ \hat{n} \ d^2x_s \rightarrow \nabla_t 0=0[/tex]

just by taking V sufficiently large.

?!
 
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See the attached file.

Pete
 

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Did you write this Pete?

There's something I don't get at all:

Equation (10c): " [itex]\nabla[/itex] and [itex]\nabla '[/itex] are related by [itex]\nabla = -\nabla '[/itex] "

How can they be related since the primed coordinates and the non-primed are not related?
 
Also, in the last paragraph of page 3,

"Regarding the first integral on the right; as the radius of the surface increases as r then the area of the surface increases as r². However the integrand decreases as r³. Therefore as we let the radius go to infinity we see that the first integral vanishes."

The author seems to be making the assumption that F decreases as r², something that was not mentionned in the original statement of the theorem.

It's a detail important to mention imo.
 
quasar987 said:
Did you write this Pete?

There's something I don't get at all:

Equation (10c): " [itex]\nabla[/itex] and [itex]\nabla '[/itex] are related by [itex]\nabla = -\nabla '[/itex] "

How can they be related since the primed coordinates and the non-primed are not related?

In this case, it's because the operator is being used on [tex]\frac{1}{|r - r'|}[/tex]. So, the derivates of [itex]r - r'[/itex] wrt to primed coordinates, are the negative of the derivates wrt to unprimed.

I don't see how it how they are related like that in any other case, except when they operate on functions of [itex]r - r'[/itex].

"Regarding the first integral on the right; as the radius of the surface increases as r then the area of the surface increases as r². However the integrand decreases as r³. Therefore as we let the radius go to infinity we see that the first integral vanishes."

The author seems to be making the assumption that F decreases as r², something that was not mentionned in the original statement of the theorem.

It's a detail important to mention imo.

Yeah, I think that the argument should be the other way around. If that integral should converge, then F should decrease as 1/r^2 or faster.
 
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