Helmholtz Theorem: What It Is & How It Works

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golfingboy07
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Hi everyone!

This question has me a little stumped.
 

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Let's work on this together. On my side, I "simplified" the 2 original integrals to

[tex]=\frac{1}{4\pi}\int_V \frac{\nabla _s \cdot \vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R^2}\hat{R} \ d^3x_s - \frac{1}{4\pi}\int_V \frac{\nabla _s \times \vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R^2} \times \hat{R} \ d^3x_s[/tex]

Anyone else care to contribute?
 
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On the other hand, take just the first integral. Isn't it just 0?

[tex]\nabla_t \int_V \nabla_s \cdot \left( \frac{\vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R} \right) \ d^3x_s = \nabla_t \int_{\partial V} \left( \frac{\vec{F}(\vec{x}_s)}{R} \right)\ \cdot \ \hat{n} \ d^2x_s \rightarrow \nabla_t 0=0[/tex]

just by taking V sufficiently large.

?!
 
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Did you write this Pete?

There's something I don't get at all:

Equation (10c): " [itex]\nabla[/itex] and [itex]\nabla '[/itex] are related by [itex]\nabla = -\nabla '[/itex] "

How can they be related since the primed coordinates and the non-primed are not related?
 
Also, in the last paragraph of page 3,

"Regarding the first integral on the right; as the radius of the surface increases as r then the area of the surface increases as r². However the integrand decreases as r³. Therefore as we let the radius go to infinity we see that the first integral vanishes."

The author seems to be making the assumption that F decreases as r², something that was not mentionned in the original statement of the theorem.

It's a detail important to mention imo.
 
quasar987 said:
Did you write this Pete?

There's something I don't get at all:

Equation (10c): " [itex]\nabla[/itex] and [itex]\nabla '[/itex] are related by [itex]\nabla = -\nabla '[/itex] "

How can they be related since the primed coordinates and the non-primed are not related?

In this case, it's because the operator is being used on [tex]\frac{1}{|r - r'|}[/tex]. So, the derivates of [itex]r - r'[/itex] wrt to primed coordinates, are the negative of the derivates wrt to unprimed.

I don't see how it how they are related like that in any other case, except when they operate on functions of [itex]r - r'[/itex].

"Regarding the first integral on the right; as the radius of the surface increases as r then the area of the surface increases as r². However the integrand decreases as r³. Therefore as we let the radius go to infinity we see that the first integral vanishes."

The author seems to be making the assumption that F decreases as r², something that was not mentionned in the original statement of the theorem.

It's a detail important to mention imo.

Yeah, I think that the argument should be the other way around. If that integral should converge, then F should decrease as 1/r^2 or faster.
 
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