Mark44
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Whatever point you're trying to make isn't based on logic. As you say, you're not a math person, so IMO, you're in over your head here.Blargus said:Well I guess I'm trying to make a philosophical point whether valid or not it seems like it is to me.
@PeroK gave a good explanation of why this is not nonsense in post 17. Did you read it?Blargus said:The point has already been made but isn't it just nonsense to say "the probability of choosing one item from an infinite set is zero?"
You've totally missed the point of my analogy. It was not whether lines have thickness or points are dimensionless -- it was a thought experiment to provide an example of an infinite length that had a starting point.Blargus said:If you draw a line of longitude and latitude according to the coordinates that intersect at that point, the lines must have some thickness to create a point thus the point must have some dimensions to exist. Maybe you can conceive of a line with no thickness or a point with no dimensions but it can't exist--be on the map--unless it has dimensions. edit: or can you even conceive of one really?
"From what little I've checked" is key here. I agree that sets are loosely defined, for the reason that the most basic terms can't be defined by using more basic terms. Empty sets are allowed to provide for completeness. An empty set can be combined (the operation is called a union) with any other set so that the result in a new set that is identically the same as the one you started with. This is the set analog of 0 being the additive identity in arithmetic. I.e., for any number x, 0 + x is identically equal to x.Blargus said:Ok but from what little I've checked it seems a set has no real definition in mathematics or a very broad one so maybe that's the argument we're having. I'm defining it as a group of things. If a set is a group of things and there are no things then there is no set.
Again, PeroK gave a good explanation of why you if the numbers are assumed to be uniformly distributed, then the probability of picking a single number can't be larger than zero.FactChecker said:That is a question that is discussed here and elsewhere occasionally. It is not a simple question. I personally have no problem with saying that a number between 0 and 1 has been selected using a uniform distribution, even though there are uncountably infinite numbers there, each with a zero probability.
I know that many people disagree with me, many who may be much smarter than me.
No, not at all, and this goes back to what you said about not being a math person.Blargus said:If I'm understanding...isn't "countably infinite" a contradiction?
You can say it if you know how the term "dense" is defined. Here's a link to a wikipedia page on this subject - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dense_set. The set of positive integers, {1, 2, 3, ..., n, ...}, is an infinite set, but this set is not dense in the real numbers. On the other hand, rational numbers are dense in the real numbers.Blargus said:How can you say an infinite quantity of things is dense or not?
Once you get beyond the concept of finite sets, you learn that there are different "sizes" of infinite sets. Here are several infinite sets: the positive integers, the set of even positive integers, the rational numbers in the interval [0, 1], the real numbers. Although it seems counterintuitive, the first three sets are the same "size" in some sense, while the fourth set, the reals, constitute a much "larger" set.
Then your position is at odds with everyone in the world who has studied mathematics beyond the first year level in college.Blargus said:But I'm not a math person anyway agree to disagree I guess.
Let's looks at a simpler example, with one set being the positive integers and the other the set of even positive integers. If I can demonstrate a one-to-one pairing between the two sets, then the sets have the same cardinality, the actual term that is used to compare sizes of infinite sets.Blargus said:What's the process to match them up? Ok let's start 1 goes to 1/a billion, 2 goes to...wait wait we missed one go back. Ok start 1 goes to 1/a billion billion 2 goes to....wait wait stop again, we missed one start again!
In the following, the first number is one of the positive integers and the second is one of the even positive integers.
1 gets paired with 2
2 gets paired with 4
3 gets paired with 6
...
n gets paired with 2n
...
If you tell me an element of the positive integers, I'll tell you what even integer it gets paired with. OTOH, if you tell me one of the even integers, I'll tell you the integer that it got paired with.
???Blargus said:Is there a ratio between them that for every integer there's so many natural numbers? No because for every 1 integer there's infinite natural numbers.
I have no idea what you're saying here.
Yes, you are making many errors of reasoning.Blargus said:Just my opinion just seems like an error of reasoning maybe.