Help needed regarding proof of definite integral problem

In summary: Then substitute u into the integral and use the same approach as before to show that An and Bn converge to 0 as n approaches infinity. In summary, to prove that An and Bn converge to 0 when n approaches infinity for a bounded and integrable function f(x) on [a,b], we can use Parseval's formula and a scale-location transformation to show that the Fourier coefficients An and Bn converge to 0 when n approaches infinity.
  • #1
rudra
14
0

Homework Statement



f(x) is a bounded function and integrable on [a,b] . a, b are real constants. We have to prove that

i) An = ab f(x)cos(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞
ii)Bn = ab f(x)sin(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞


Homework Equations



Parseval's formula : For uniform convergence of f(x) with its Fourier series in [a,b]

abf2(x) dx = L * ( a02/2 + Ʃ( an2+bn2 ) )


where a0 an bn are Fourier Coefficient. L = (b-a)/2

The Attempt at a Solution



If f(x) is bounded integrable in [-π,π]
Then by Parseval's Theorem
πf2(x) dx = L * ( A02/2 + Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) ≤ 1/L * ( πf2(x) dx )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) converges to a finite value.

Hence An → 0 when n→∞ and Bn → 0 when n→∞

The above proof is assumed the interval is [-π,π] .

But the problem is when interval is [a,b]. Fourier coefficient An is given by
(1/L)*ab f(x)cos(nπx/L) dx

Any idea How to proceed further?
 
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  • #2
rudra said:

Homework Statement



f(x) is a bounded function and integrable on [a,b] . a, b are real constants. We have to prove that

i) An = ab f(x)cos(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞
ii)Bn = ab f(x)sin(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞


Homework Equations



Parseval's formula : For uniform convergence of f(x) with its Fourier series in [a,b]

abf2(x) dx = L * ( a02/2 + Ʃ( an2+bn2 ) )


where a0 an bn are Fourier Coefficient. L = (b-a)/2

The Attempt at a Solution



If f(x) is bounded integrable in [-π,π]
Then by Parseval's Theorem
πf2(x) dx = L * ( A02/2 + Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) ≤ 1/L * ( πf2(x) dx )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) converges to a finite value.

Hence An → 0 when n→∞ and Bn → 0 when n→∞

The above proof is assumed the interval is [-π,π] .

But the problem is when interval is [a,b]. Fourier coefficient An is given by
(1/L)*ab f(x)cos(nπx/L) dx

Any idea How to proceed further?

Just apply a scale-location transformation of the form x = A*u + B, to transform the x-interval [a,b] into the u-interval [-π,π].
 

1. What is a definite integral?

A definite integral is a mathematical concept that represents the area under a curve on a graph. It is used to find the total accumulation of a function over a certain interval.

2. How do you solve a definite integral?

To solve a definite integral, you must first identify the limits of integration or the upper and lower bounds of the interval. Then, you can use various techniques such as the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, substitution, or integration by parts to evaluate the integral.

3. What is the difference between a definite integral and an indefinite integral?

A definite integral has specific limits of integration and will give a numerical value as the result. An indefinite integral has no limits and is represented by an antiderivative, which is a function that when differentiated, results in the original function.

4. What are some real-life applications of definite integrals?

Definite integrals are used in various fields such as physics, engineering, economics, and statistics. Some examples include calculating work done by a varying force, finding the center of mass of an object, and determining the average value of a function over a given interval.

5. How can I check if my definite integral solution is correct?

You can check your definite integral solution by using a graphing calculator or software to plot the function and the corresponding area under the curve. Another way is to use the properties of definite integrals, such as the symmetry property or the comparison property, to verify your answer.

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