Help needed regarding proof of definite integral problem

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving that the Fourier coefficients An and Bn of a bounded and integrable function f(x) on the interval [a, b] converge to zero as n approaches infinity. Specifically, it establishes that An = a∫b f(x)cos(nx) dx → 0 and Bn = a∫b f(x)sin(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞. The proof utilizes Parseval's theorem and the properties of Fourier series, emphasizing the need for a scale-location transformation to adapt the interval from [a, b] to [-π, π].

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  • Understanding of Fourier series and Fourier coefficients
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  • Knowledge of bounded and integrable functions
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rudra
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Homework Statement



f(x) is a bounded function and integrable on [a,b] . a, b are real constants. We have to prove that

i) An = ab f(x)cos(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞
ii)Bn = ab f(x)sin(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞


Homework Equations



Parseval's formula : For uniform convergence of f(x) with its Fourier series in [a,b]

abf2(x) dx = L * ( a02/2 + Ʃ( an2+bn2 ) )


where a0 an bn are Fourier Coefficient. L = (b-a)/2

The Attempt at a Solution



If f(x) is bounded integrable in [-π,π]
Then by Parseval's Theorem
πf2(x) dx = L * ( A02/2 + Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) ≤ 1/L * ( πf2(x) dx )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) converges to a finite value.

Hence An → 0 when n→∞ and Bn → 0 when n→∞

The above proof is assumed the interval is [-π,π] .

But the problem is when interval is [a,b]. Fourier coefficient An is given by
(1/L)*ab f(x)cos(nπx/L) dx

Any idea How to proceed further?
 
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rudra said:

Homework Statement



f(x) is a bounded function and integrable on [a,b] . a, b are real constants. We have to prove that

i) An = ab f(x)cos(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞
ii)Bn = ab f(x)sin(nx) dx → 0 when n→∞


Homework Equations



Parseval's formula : For uniform convergence of f(x) with its Fourier series in [a,b]

abf2(x) dx = L * ( a02/2 + Ʃ( an2+bn2 ) )


where a0 an bn are Fourier Coefficient. L = (b-a)/2

The Attempt at a Solution



If f(x) is bounded integrable in [-π,π]
Then by Parseval's Theorem
πf2(x) dx = L * ( A02/2 + Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) ≤ 1/L * ( πf2(x) dx )

Hence Ʃ( An2+Bn2 ) ) converges to a finite value.

Hence An → 0 when n→∞ and Bn → 0 when n→∞

The above proof is assumed the interval is [-π,π] .

But the problem is when interval is [a,b]. Fourier coefficient An is given by
(1/L)*ab f(x)cos(nπx/L) dx

Any idea How to proceed further?

Just apply a scale-location transformation of the form x = A*u + B, to transform the x-interval [a,b] into the u-interval [-π,π].
 

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