Help Prove Lim x-infinity cos(nx) = dne

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that the limit of cos(nx) as x approaches negative infinity does not exist. Participants are exploring the behavior of the cosine function under different conditions, particularly focusing on its oscillatory nature.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the idea of using sequences to demonstrate that the limit does not exist by showing different limits for different sequences approaching infinity. There is also mention of using epsilon-delta proofs as a potential method for approaching the problem.

Discussion Status

Some participants are confirming each other's reasoning and suggesting specific examples to illustrate the oscillatory behavior of the cosine function. There appears to be a productive exchange of ideas, although no consensus has been reached on a definitive method for the proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of the cosine function's periodicity and how it relates to the limit's existence. There is an acknowledgment of the need for a systematic approach to the proof, but no specific constraints or rules have been noted beyond the general homework context.

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Help! Prove Lim x--infinity cos(nx) = dne

Hey guys! I am new here however, I have been lurking around for a while. I need some help with a problem that I am currently working on. Here it is:

Homework Statement



Prove Lim x--infinity cos(nx) = does not exist

The Attempt at a Solution



As of now, I am not quite sure how to approach the problem. I know that I can say that if x is a multiple of 2π then it will converge to 1 however, if it is not a multiple of 2π then it will simply oscillate until infinity. As such, the limit does not exist. However, I doubt that that is what is required of the problem. I am thinking that there must be some systematic setup that I can use to prove this problem otherwise. Is there such a way or is my reasoning correct?

In our other problems, we used epsilon-delta proofs to prove that certain functions converged to p.

Anythings would help! Thanks guys!
 
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This reminds of a problem I had to do recently. Here are my thoughts:
Pick 2 sequences (x_{n})_{n} and (y_{n})_{n} such that lim x_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity and lim y_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity. Then show that lim f(x_{n}) ≠ lim f(y_{n}), therefore the limit does not exist.
 


frenchkiki said:
This reminds of a problem I had to do recently. Here are my thoughts:
Pick 2 sequences (x_{n})_{n} and (y_{n})_{n} such that lim x_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity and lim y_{n} = infinity as n tends to infinity. Then show that lim f(x_{n}) ≠ lim f(y_{n}), therefore the limit does not exist.

So if I understand your statement correctly, I should choose for example cos(2πn) and show that that the limit goes to 1 and then pick any other to show that it goes to some other number? So basically my reasoning was right?
 


bluemax43 said:
So if I understand your statement correctly, I should choose for example cos(2πn) and show that that the limit goes to 1 and then pick any other to show that it goes to some other number? So basically my reasoning was right?

Yes it is correct.
 


got it thanks!
 

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