Undergrad Help understanding a passage from a proof of change of variables formula

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The discussion centers on clarifying the application of Theorem 2.40 in the context of the change of variables formula in Folland's book. The excerpt highlights the construction of a decreasing sequence of open sets, ##U_j##, within the set ##W_{K+1}##, which contains the Borel subset ##E##. The role of ##W_K## is to establish a bounded region where the properties of the determinant of the Jacobian, ##|\det D_xG|##, are controlled. The reference to Theorem 2.40 indicates that the construction of the sets ##U_j## is based on its part (a), which ensures that the measure of the difference between the intersection of the sets and ##E## is negligible. Overall, the discussion seeks to clarify the logical connections between these mathematical concepts.
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I'm reading a proof of the change of variables formula for a ##C^1## diffeomorphism ##G:\Omega\subset\mathbb R^n\to\mathbb R^n## in Folland for the Lebesgue integral, that is $$\int_{G(\Omega)}f(x)\,dx=\int_\Omega f\circ G(x)|\det D_xG|\,dx.$$Here ##D_xG## is the Jacobian matrix. There's a reference to an earlier theorem that I struggle with.
Here's an excerpt from the proof of the change of variables formula in Folland's book (Theorem 2.47, page 76, 2nd edition, 6th and later printings):

Let ##W_K=\Omega\cap\{x:|x|<K\text{ and } |\det D_xG|<K\}##. If ##E## is a Borel subset of ##W_K##, by Theorem 2.40 there is a decreasing sequence of open sets ##U_j\subset W_{K+1}## such that ##E\subset \bigcap_1^\infty U_j## and ##m\left(\bigcap_1^\infty U_j\setminus E\right)=0##.

For reference, see Theorem 2.40 below. I don't understand how he is using Theorem 2.40 in the quoted passage. Which part of Theorem 2.40 is he using? Moreover, I don't understand the role of ##W_K## and in particular, why ##U_j\subset W_{K+1}##? It'd be awesome if someone could clarify these points.

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I've worked it out I think. He uses part (a) and everything follows from this. I know, I didn't give a lot of context, but the proof is long.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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