Help with some fiddly algebra around a 1st order ODE

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The discussion centers on solving a first-order ordinary differential equation (ODE) for a boat coasting with resistance proportional to \( V^n \), represented as \( m\frac{dV}{dt} = -kV^n \). The user successfully derived the velocity function \( V(t) = {V}_{0}[1+(n-1)\frac{k}{m}t{V}_{0}^{n-1}]^{\frac{1}{1-n}} \), which matches the textbook solution. However, confusion arises from an incorrect simplification of the exponent, leading to discrepancies in the integration for position \( x(t) \). The key issue identified is the misunderstanding of exponent manipulation, particularly the incorrect assumption that \( \frac{1}{1-n} = n-1 \).

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ognik
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Frustratingly although I can solve the ODE, I am getting a different answer to the book. Now going in circles so would appreciate a fresh pair of eyes.

The ODE (for a boat coasting with resistance proportional to $V^n$) starts as $ m\frac{dV}{dt} =-kV^n $ Find V(t) and x(t), V(0) = $V_0$

I solved the general case for n as $ V={V}_{0}[1+(n-1)\frac{k}{m}t{V}_{0}^{n-1}]^{\frac{1}{1-n}} $, which happily agrees with the book. But I simplified the power of the [...] term to $ V={V}_{0}[1+(n-1)\frac{k}{m}t{V}_{0}^{n-1}]^{n-1} $ - can't see that would make a difference?

Then, integrating again to get x(t), I let the term [...] = u, then $ dt=\frac{m}{(n-1)k{V}_{0}^{n-1}}du $

and $ x(t)=\frac{m{V}_{0}}{(n-1)k{V}_{0}^{n-1}}\int{u}^{n-1}du = \frac{m{V}_{0}}{(n-1)k{V}_{0}^{n-1}}\frac{{u}^{n}}{n} = \frac{m{V}_{0}^{2-n}}{kn(n-1)}[...]^n $

But the book shows $ \frac{m{V}_{0}^{2-n}}{k(2-n)}(1 - [...]^\frac{n-2}{n-1}) $?
 
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ognik said:
Frustratingly although I can solve the ODE, I am getting a different answer to the book. Now going in circles so would appreciate a fresh pair of eyes.

The ODE (for a boat coasting with resistance proportional to $V^n$) starts as $ m\frac{dV}{dt} =-kV^n $ Find V(t) and x(t), V(0) = $V_0$

I solved the general case for n as $ V={V}_{0}[1+(n-1)\frac{k}{m}t{V}_{0}^{n-1}]^{\frac{1}{1-n}} $, which happily agrees with the book. But I simplified the power of the [...] term to $ V={V}_{0}[1+(n-1)\frac{k}{m}t{V}_{0}^{n-1}]^{n-1} $ - can't see that would make a difference?

Why is
$$\frac{1}{1-n}=n-1?$$
That's the only thing you've changed in the expression. But this equality is manifestly not true. If for no other reason, $n=1$ is not in the domain of the LHS, but it is in the RHS.
 
How I can get the hard stuff done and then do something like that is beyond my understanding... maybe it's time to take a break, I think I mixed up $a^{-n} $ as $ a^{\frac{1}{n}}$ instead of $\frac{1}{{a}^{n}} $ - there is no simplification of a power like $ \frac{1}{1-n}$ is there?
 
Hey, it happens to the best of us. Algebra mistakes are by far the most common I run across, even in advanced math courses.

No, I don't think you can simplify the exponent at all. I think you're stuck with it.

Cheers!
 

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