A Help with this Standard Model demonstration please

Andreaca
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
I want to demonstrate that calculating the squared amplitude of the process quark antiquark in lepton antilepton where I consider the non-zero masses of the fermions, is equivalent to considering the zero masses but with infinite insertions of the vev. I am trying to do it, but the pieces I find that diverge do not have opposite signs. Could you help me?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Might help if you show what you have so far. Also if you square the negative frequency amplitude what result do you get (positive or negative) ?
Then ask yourself the question on a probability amplitude such as provided by the Schrodinger equations
" is a negative probability valid ? "
 
Last edited:
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...
Back
Top